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- June 15, 2017 at 10:11 am #393234June 14, 2017 at 9:59 am #393116
@caspian087 i don’t remember
June 13, 2017 at 10:07 am #392957@acca145 same
June 13, 2017 at 10:06 am #392956@apostolou for the first 2 MCQ i got the same answer.
June 13, 2017 at 10:05 am #392955for the first 2 MCQ i got the same answer.
June 13, 2017 at 10:01 am #392953no i think its 11.68% say 12%
June 13, 2017 at 9:58 am #392952yes effectively bank overdraft is a cost for the company, therefore we must include it when we calculate WACC. The WACC for question 31. is 11.69% say 12%
for question 32: inflation must be incorporated. so for each year the selling must have been inflated by 1.03 for 1st year, 1.03 to the power of 2 for 2nd year, 1.03 to the power of 3 for 3rd year and so on. And same for variable costs.
January 18, 2016 at 2:19 am #29534260% pass!!! Thanks you opentuition for your help and strong support!!!!
January 18, 2016 at 2:17 am #29534051% pass
December 9, 2015 at 5:23 am #289411i think it was okay for Question 1 i took $4000 as goodwill id calculated at aquisition and not at year end.
And for sales from subsidiary to parent i use $1000 as we have to eliminates intra group balance.. Depreciation is 2400/2 years by 9/12.
I had never see such question before and it was very confusingDecember 5, 2014 at 8:56 pm #218706At least i know that i got 2 marks thanks
December 5, 2014 at 8:53 pm #218704Question 2… just love it but unfortunately the MCQ were very tricky
October 28, 2014 at 2:37 am #206327hii for f6 paper exempt means not taxable
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