[Kanza]

Thank you for explaining those points. It is true that I get stuck with little problems but I’ll try to avoid that. Thank you for your advice :).

[Kanza]

Thank you for explaining those points sir. It is true that I get stuck with little details and am unable to move on. I will try to change that. Thank you for your kind advice :).

[Kanza]

I understand it now. Thank you Sir. 🙂

[Kanza]

Yes Sir. Thank you. I got that now. 🙂

[Kanza]

P7 55% P4 40%, both in 4th attempt but just one more to go now thankfully so not dejected at all.

[Kanza]

Thank you so so so much Sir.

[Kanza]

Thank you so much Sir. I can finally breath 😀 :). Stay blessed.

[Kanza]

Alright Sir, I will keep that in mind :). Thank you.

[Kanza]

Thank you Mr. John, I did take the first lecture and it was really helpful.

[Kanza]

Thank you for your quick reply. I appreciate that a lot. 🙂

For No. 3, can you please elaborate.

What I understand is if the currency of the amount we are converting and the exchange rate given are in the same currency, we divide. As here when converting £ cashflows into $, we divide them and so on, where 1 $= £0.67. So for year 20X5, we divide £38.24 m with £ 0.6408 and get $59.68 m.

But if we, for example, had a conversion rate like $1.4925/£, to convert £ cashflows into $, we will multiply them by $1.4925 because currency of cashflow and exchange rate is different?

[Kanza]

🙂 Thank you Mr. John. That was really helpful. I was just confused how do I assume what total capital or equity can be in an exam question if only debt ratio is given. I re read the question and it said 60 per cent and 150 per cent so like you said, it is 100 for the one we are taking a percent of. Pure common sense. Its dumb things like this that made me fail my exam :(. Yet thank you so much for helping me understand :).

[Kanza]

🙂 Thank you Mr John. That sounds even much better. I’d look forward to them. Stay blessed. Thank you for replying.

[Author]

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