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Under FV method, $24 m ($30m x 80%) attributed to Luploid is debited or credited to Luploid goodwill and the $6m attributed to the NCI in the comprehensive income is minus or plus?
Thank you.
Hi, Sir, what is the CA amount stand for in your answer, is it current asset?
Oh, Sorry Sir.
I seem to know why using the low rate, because we need to buy $ and the forward rate $/£1 is first currency.Thank you, Sir, I know how to find it.
By using 0.5 – 0.1 (90%)= 0.4, then directly find figures in the table, which gives 1.28.Thank you, Sir.
But why they still choose this option even it would not be exercised? Is that 5.41% highee than 4.58% of future?
Also, in note 3, the net assets : $118m + ($48m x 9/12) = $154m.
Where did the $48m came from?
Hi Sir, does zippy in total purchased for 6k + 5k+ 7k = 18k units??
And how the 2k units came from, which minus which?
Also, in order to arrive at $972 per item, they took 4k + 5k, but how does this in relevant to 7k units?
Thank you, Sir. I’ve got it.
But, if I’m doing the interest on obligation, when did I know whether it has to minus out benefit paid after already included benefit paid in the CHANGES IN PV OF THE DEFINED BENEFIT OBLIGATION?
Eg. opening defined benefit obligation $4300
Interest on obligation (4300-330) x 8% $318
Benefit paid. $(330)In addition, for the interest on plan asset as well, when will I know whether it has to add in the contribution & benefit paid after already included both in the CHANGES IN THE FV OF PLAN ASSETS?
Eg. opening Fv of plan assets. $3600
Interest on plan assets [ (3600+550-330)x 8%] $318
Benefit paid. $(330)
Contributions $550.
Hi, Sir.
I would like to know, how does the Net PBT and equity be minus 4?Is it due to profit of $32m x 25% of interest = $8m in an associate?
It’s nothing 🙂 I appreciate your assistance, Sir.
Now I get to know where the 0.5% comes from.
Yeah, Sir. I knew that.
I just wonder why the answer sheet stated for borrowing cost is ( 4.1% + 0.5%) of the bank fees instead of 0.05%?
Sir, I’m referring to part c i) spot cross rate.
92.70 / 132.4 =0.70
95.6/ 129.2= 0.741I don’t understand why using 92.70/ 132.4 ?
Using 132.4, is it becuz of that we need to sell off the EUR 80m received to buy Yen?
Then why using 92.70 instead of 95.6??
Also, the paragraph had written exercise price $7.25 gives worst result than the swap even before the premium is deducted, becuz of the exchange rate being fixed on the swap back of the original amount paid.
What is the meaning of exchange rate being fixed on the swap back of the original amount paid???
Sir, Would you please explain more about how to approtioned between March and Jun futures price?
Is the 2/3 derives from April – 31 May (2 mths) for the transaction and June futures expired from April – 31 June (3mths)???
Very appreciated for your help Sir, but I’m still not very clear.
For a)i ) the cash would be NIL, is it becuase we need to buy back shares at $10m with our cash by $10m (7.6m + 2.4m)?
For a)ii) the answer for cash is $5m becuz Rajiv patel’s loan note replaced by $5m shares, so this amount was paid by our cash $10m (7.6+2.4), so this is why $10m has to minus $5m from shares, in arriving $5m balancing figure???
Sir, but I don’t quite understand why the cash has to be minus of 5m?
I’ve only understood cash will be increased from 7.6m +2.4m =10m.
Can you please show me why it has to be minus by 5m?
Hi again, Sir
Balance to Subordinated 2.07m due to rental income is 5% lower than forcast, giving return 11.5%, below the return of B & C ( 12% , 13%) .
How is that holder of certificate will receive nothing and below?
Also, why holder of C rated loan will not receive full income, isn’t the income of c = 3.51?
