Forum Replies Created
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- November 4, 2016 at 1:56 pm #347403
Dear Sir
So the mistake I made was to re-use the 20000 which was already included in the ‘Net assets’ of which the NCI owned 25 percent.
on the plus side, I was right about me being wrong π
I think i just got confused. No malice aforethought.
thanks for the clarification
regardsNovember 4, 2016 at 12:36 pm #347361Dear Sir,
(sorry for the delay in response, I took [gasp] a day off from studying)
(clearly i’ve made a mistake somewhere but)
In working 4:
NCI at 25 percent ownership.
fair value at acquisition: 25 percent of net assets at acquisition:
: 0.25 X 28000 = 7000
Plus: 25 percent of post acquistion:
: 25 percent x 2500 = 625
total: 7625but the NCI also has an ‘opening retained earnings’ of 20000
in my head the answer should be 27625 to include the opening RE.
Am I mistaken?
furthermore, can you see where I’m mistaken ? ( personally, i really can’t)thanks for your time
October 24, 2016 at 1:27 pm #345825understood
thanks for your help
regardsOctober 18, 2016 at 4:21 pm #344748Dear sir
I dont know why I didnt think of it as being the ‘Fair value at date of reclassification’.
thanks for the help and the trivia !all the best
PS
I’m disappointed that the fvadorc is fictional! but it IS memorable πOctober 13, 2016 at 9:28 am #342853That’s magic! π
thanks for your help, sir
All the best
September 18, 2016 at 1:54 pm #340847understood.
thanks sir
all the bestSeptember 18, 2016 at 8:55 am #340830That’s great.
Thanks for your help
regards πSeptember 14, 2016 at 12:57 pm #340494Great.
thanks for the confirmation!
all the best πSeptember 12, 2016 at 9:03 am #340038Understood.
Thanks, Sir.
All the bestSeptember 3, 2016 at 11:04 am #337263Dear Sir
I understand there is no such as thing as ‘margin profits’, I used the phrase to help in my own understanding.
I’ll go through your lecture again. I may have missed something the first time.
thanks for your help in this matter
kind regardsSeptember 1, 2016 at 1:49 pm #336826Sorry, Sir.
I didn’t understand that.the ‘margin-profit’ is only for items that are sold.
but the cost of goods (Cost of Sales?) is Higher than anticipated because the wasted goods still carry the Cost of Sales but bring no profit.Since ‘Margin-profits’ are based on Sales and wasted products are un-sold products.
is that correct?
If not, i think i’m confused.
regardsAugust 30, 2016 at 4:01 pm #336313good to know i wasnt a million miles off target.
thanks for your help
regardsAugust 4, 2016 at 3:51 pm #331438please ignore the above message.
I found what I missed
apologiesps for any future students reading this message
check the number of SHARES bought BY the parent company and then compare that number to the Subsidiary’s total shares
that will give you a percentage ownership
all the bestAugust 2, 2016 at 11:18 am #330811Thanks for your help
regards πAugust 1, 2016 at 1:45 pm #330677Thanks for your reply
Have a good day
regards - AuthorPosts