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- November 9, 2014 at 9:21 am #208535
but my question is why we cannot do it in nominal cash flow while it is in perpetuity….and if it is then why in Kaplan book they used nominal rate…
November 9, 2014 at 6:51 am #208517thank u sir!! sorry for using capital letter!
November 8, 2014 at 5:59 pm #208452SIR,
AM CO WILL RECEIVE A PERPETUITY STARTING IN 2 YEARS TIME OF 10,000 PER ANNUM,INCREASING BY THE RATE OF INFLATION 2%.WHAT IS THE PERPETUITY ASSUMING A MONEY COST OF CAPITAL OF 10.2%?
MY QUESTION IS WHY THEY USED REAL COST OF CAPITAL IN THE ANSWER?
November 6, 2014 at 3:36 pm #2080148(1-.35) *760000=3952*3.53=139487 (5.2%@4y=3.53)
80000* .816=653171 …………………….irr=6.47………
r8 or wrong?????
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