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javed

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Active 2 months ago
  • Topics: 1
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Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • November 9, 2014 at 9:21 am #208535
    6bdf445ba91fec7f45c05932b6c8414634ed6b11a023dea5bc027efd7df485f0 80javed
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    but my question is why we cannot do it in nominal cash flow while it is in perpetuity….and if it is then why in Kaplan book they used nominal rate…

    November 9, 2014 at 6:51 am #208517
    6bdf445ba91fec7f45c05932b6c8414634ed6b11a023dea5bc027efd7df485f0 80javed
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    thank u sir!! sorry for using capital letter!

    November 8, 2014 at 5:59 pm #208452
    6bdf445ba91fec7f45c05932b6c8414634ed6b11a023dea5bc027efd7df485f0 80javed
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
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    SIR,
    AM CO WILL RECEIVE A PERPETUITY STARTING IN 2 YEARS TIME OF 10,000 PER ANNUM,INCREASING BY THE RATE OF INFLATION 2%.

    WHAT IS THE PERPETUITY ASSUMING A MONEY COST OF CAPITAL OF 10.2%?

    MY QUESTION IS WHY THEY USED REAL COST OF CAPITAL IN THE ANSWER?

    November 6, 2014 at 3:36 pm #208014
    6bdf445ba91fec7f45c05932b6c8414634ed6b11a023dea5bc027efd7df485f0 80javed
    Participant
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    8(1-.35) *760000=3952*3.53=139487 (5.2%@4y=3.53)
    80000* .816=653171 …………………….

    irr=6.47………

    r8 or wrong?????

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