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Sir John,
I understand that – but the answer gives FCFF without debt deduction – when looking at exc. VOGEL 2014, FCFF is also used but the debt is deducted before arriving at the final value to the shareholders. Could you please explain where does the difference come from?
Sir John,
I understand that – but the answer gives FCFF without debt deduction – when looking at exc. VOGEL 2014, FCFF is also used but the debt is deducted before arriving at the final value to the shareholders. Could you please explain where does the difference come from?
Also, when ungearing and regearing the asset betas those values are used as if they are equity – it is the only such example in the past papers I found and I can’t get an understanding.
Dear Sir,
thank you for the answer. I just can’t put my head around it, since it says in BPP Study Book – Pa is the PV of CF generated after the exercise of the option… so if cost of exercise is 60 Mio and NPV after is said to be 10 Mio then we discount 70 Mio. If you could try and explain it in different wording that would be great, for me it seems the same like in MMC scenario, instead here we add the cost to Pa and we do not do it in MMC.
it was my first attempt but gosh I have been so frustrated throughout the whole examination – I spent so much time on risk/uncertainty to comprehend it well with definitions and working capital as well – NOTHING, one question on rec. days and one theoretical part. If I won’t score 50% I will be so mad – that was my breaking point, I will give up ACCA if it’s not a pass honestly.