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- January 30, 2017 at 7:26 pm #370306
But, Year 1 is 5000*0.20=1000
Year 2 is 4000*0.20= 800
Year 3 3200*0.20=640= 2440…Where am I going wrong?
Thanks
FORGET, FORGET!! Actually see the problem now. I never took the last 640 off 3200!! I thought I was going mad because I’ve done it loads of time and got the right answer. Was doing too many questions in one go.
Thanks again
January 27, 2017 at 9:47 pm #369988OK, must do. I can do the Global version here rather than paying for a course if I do the variant, although, obviously I’ll have to do outside tuition on F6 (Taxation) as the Irish Tax system won’t be covered (unfortunately) by the F6 lectures on OT.
Thanks
January 23, 2017 at 4:49 pm #369057Give it about three weeks/month to study syllabus, because it’s a wide course, there is not much point (unlike computational papers concerned more with technique and application ) in delaying the exam once you’ve adsorbed the main content.
January 9, 2017 at 10:07 pm #365849Actually, logically it must be an DR in the bank account (increase in income) and a CR in the Income Account (Rent Received). Is this correct? Silly mistake, but it didn’t reference another account, so I assume this must be the case?
November 28, 2016 at 10:24 am #352118Yes, I’ve written down most and remember the majority now. I find when you have to work backwards i.e getting the actual rate of pay or actual amount produced, a bit more tricky than a simple question and how to get a variance. I suppose it’s an area where you must simply learn the rules verbatim, where as. mostly elsewhere the the logic of what you’re doing is very evident.
November 22, 2016 at 12:33 pm #350624Hi John
Sorry, that’s Sales Price- minus- Contribution. I understand as the only O/H variance with MC is expenditure.
Thanks
November 1, 2016 at 12:47 pm #346960Thanks, Yes 4 is logical and makes sense, but, some of the Kaplan questions have asked for a moving average over 3 or 5, which isn’t perhaps what’s most used in the real world.
Yes, I get your point about the seasonality pertaining to a short time range (a few years at most)….I was thinking if cyclical trends which you said in another post can’t really be modeled very accurately.
October 30, 2016 at 4:28 pm #346722That’s interesting- I was asking more from a non-exam position, but, thanks.
October 4, 2016 at 10:18 pm #342413OK so 20% would be likewise 20/110 (.1818) 2400 and so on..makes sense to me, I just read a bit quickly and passed over 10% of “output” (not input) reference.
Thanks
September 27, 2016 at 4:30 pm #341897Thanks. If doing over 6 months you’d be dividing yearly d/2 and dividing your yearly holding cost by 2 at the end.
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