[irdinazafira]

okie sir ! noted with thanks 🙂

[irdinazafira]

Okie sir! noted , thank you so much 🙂

[irdinazafira]

I see, noted sir! thank you 🙂

Btw, i got one more question, for the risk of inadequate disclosure for operating segments, instead of using the increase of revenue of 14.1% of Mondays coffee drive-through , can i use the associated capital expenditure of $43 million(10% of Total Assets of Group) as benchmarks to shows that it need to be presented as operating segment…

[irdinazafira]

Hi sir,

during review of the financial information of Ryder Group, i found out that the increase of rev and profit of group (16.4% and 11.1%) is not consistent with increase in TA which is only 5.6%.

Can i write the possible risk of mgt understated the total assets and overstated the profit? which i also mention that bcs this situation indicates that mgt could possible to manipulate the FS since increasing in rev and profit is not due to the increase of capital investments made by Group….. and should discuss with management more about reasons of rev and profit have significantly increase…

[irdinazafira]

Hi sir, for the risk of inadequate disclosure for operating segments, instead of using the increase of revenue of 14.1% of Mondays coffee drive-through , can i use the associated capital expenditure of $43 million(10% of Total Assets of Group) as benchmarks to shows that it need to be presented as operating segment…

[irdinazafira]

sir, what is mean by the nominal value in this question, i tried to the npv method at first to calculate the value of unsecured debt, however it seems like it does not include the amount of par redeem at end of 10 year???

[irdinazafira]

hi sir, i would like to ask for part c), right why ye assume the kd=9%?? why we dont find the kd using IRR method first??

[irdinazafira]

helo sir, can i know why then we calculated the ke of ungeared, why can we use the formulae of WACC(geared)= Ke(ungeared)*(1-(Debt*tax)/debt+equity))…

[irdinazafira]

hehe, i already seen your video, i feel like i understand it at first, then suddenly everything become mixed up when im doing past year question 🙁 , so , if i understand it correctly, you mean that the month on futures and option of foreign exchange risk and interest rate risk is only first month ending after the date of transaction which is in futures when , the date you buy / sell the futures.. and for option is when the premium is paid???

[irdinazafira]

noted sir! thanks 🙂

[irdinazafira]

BTW sirr, just to clarified , do you means that the growth of 3% is already included in the P/E ratio?? or because of the p/e ratio it self does not included any 3% growth we dont include it???

[irdinazafira]

THANKSSS SIR!!! :DDDDDD UARE THE BESTTT!!!!!

[irdinazafira]

hello sir,.. perhaps do you have any explanation on this question…. T>T

[irdinazafira]

hi sir, in the calculation to find total cash flow to equity, why we do not take into account the annual growth of 7million of FCFe of Chawon?? It is because the annual growth only happen when Chawon does not combined with Selorn??

[irdinazafira]

for question b), why the eps for all offer is constant??

[irdinazafira]

hi sir, during the share to share exchange right, did the company have to issue new shares in order to exchange it or, is it the company just exchange their shares that have been issued before… if there just using their old shares, it means that there will be no movement (increase/decrease) in the no of share right?

[irdinazafira]

Ok! noted, thank you mr john !

[irdinazafira]

Can i know , why the BSOP model for equity valuation assume that it is an call option?

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