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- December 2, 2014 at 5:49 pm #216263
Roision who?
December 2, 2014 at 5:46 pm #216249And then upon her death her nill rate band could be used by her newphew or whatever the person was
December 2, 2014 at 5:19 pm #216168When acca start its survey on net about exam paper f6 please tell it how worst it was its our responsibility
December 2, 2014 at 5:16 pm #216161Anniebabe you are right and the paper was extremely lenghty and complicated examiner messedup everything and Examined the whole sallybus
December 2, 2014 at 12:04 am #215648Robert anthony and unchanged standard ans please?
December 1, 2014 at 7:20 pm #215391D for which one ?
December 1, 2014 at 7:05 pm #215373Please tell the ans of robert anthony theory and efficiency and effectiveness
November 1, 2014 at 8:34 pm #207136You should do it I was telling about those initial workings after that u solve it accordingly 🙂
November 1, 2014 at 12:07 am #207031Dear the salary is 37000 deduct the personal allowance u will get 27560 then add 1000 of building society interest (gross) u will get 28560 then multiply it by 20%….basic rate band limit is 32010 so u still have 3450 so check the band list if dividend income falls in basic rate band we multiply it by 10%…then the reaming amount of dividend(gross) is 6550 so multiply it by 32.5 %
October 31, 2014 at 3:39 pm #207008Yes exactly
October 31, 2014 at 12:07 pm #206973Sir please reply me
October 29, 2014 at 4:38 pm #206606yeah rrahmati the solution is wrong in BPP kit of the question 20.9
October 26, 2014 at 7:30 am #205998You are most welcome 🙂
October 25, 2014 at 8:52 pm #205971The 900000 is the overhead cost these overheads are actually heating lightning etc and absorbed on direct labour hours basis and the 300 000 are direct labour hours so 900 000/300 000 gives $3 per direct labour hour second matter is if u multiply 9000 by 10 you will get the ans in minutes so in order to convert it in hours you have to devide it by 60 cause there are 60 minutes in one hour 😀
October 25, 2014 at 8:39 pm #205969Because there would must be an associate company so the limits will be reduced read the question again
October 25, 2014 at 8:26 pm #205966You have to calculate both in any situation If the difference is insignificant then choose the lower one for example if u calc the interest free loan by average method and the ans comes as 330 and the precise method gives u the ans as 300 so opt precise method as the difference is insignificant and so HMRC will allow yo to opt that
October 25, 2014 at 8:21 pm #205965Hahaha dear sir your comments on we people.. you people made me laugh too much hahahah lol
September 23, 2014 at 8:20 pm #196090Thank you very much sir i got my ans 😀
September 23, 2014 at 8:17 pm #196089no no sir i did not mean 100% actually i am really very risk averser and i do not wanna waste my attempt thats why i was asking but now i got my ans thank you very much 🙂 may God Bless you 🙂
September 23, 2014 at 1:24 pm #196048yes sir exactly you are right but in the revision kit of bpp there are theory questions that are not possible to be answered without studying the book i am very tensed that what kinda MCQs are we really gonna face in this december attempt…calculations are not a big problem at all but theory is a main problem of mine please help me out in this i shall be very much thankful to you
September 23, 2014 at 1:19 pm #196047first of all sir thank you very much for your quick and great response and sir you are absolutely right but what if examiner gives in the exam isolated theory question for example yesterday i learned the factors that influence on price other than cost those were like Quality intermediaries price perception price sensitivity and so on so what will we do how we will give the ans to such kind of questions when we would not have learned such kind of isolated theory from the book and if we do learn then again the same question rises that how we will cover the whole theory of book there are lots of lots of theory in the book its impossible to cover everything and keep remember each point and almost everything has some advantages and disadvantages and for calculation its not a big problem for me i can handle it… but for theory what should i do now for this…please guide me
July 18, 2011 at 3:27 pm #85769thanks buddy
July 8, 2011 at 3:32 pm #72171Idle time means
whenever there will be stockout there will be idle time.
Idle time means when there is a shortage of anything like power breakdown, stockout material or anything which may cause stop production and the labour will take they money of that time even there is no production it is called idle time.April 1, 2011 at 4:22 pm #80196i am sorry i wanted to say opening > closing
April 1, 2011 at 4:20 pm #80195Opening < closing
5000 < 3000
PUM=PUA+FOH/unit x change in stock
where PUM= profit under marginal
PUA= profit under absorption
FOH/unit Fixed overhead/unit
change in stock= difference between opening and closing
so,
PUM=92000+9×2000
92000+18000
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