[G.Brindha]

Thanks for the reply sir 🙂 That helps.

[G.Brindha]

Thanks for the reply sir, that helps :).
But i have further doubt in this, in the text they have given in this way as an explanation of how to apportion the interest and interest-bearing assets, “These need not be allocated to the same segment- Interest receivable could be allocated to the profit or loss of one segment and related interest-bearing assets to the assets and liabilities. IFRS 8 calls this is called as asymmetric allocation”
Could you please explain the stance that they like to convey here?
Because from my understanding they say that the allocation need not be made to specific segment but shouldn’t it be another way around (i.e allocation to be made to only to the segment which issued the interest-bearing security)?

[Author]

Posts