[faysalciro]

Sorry.

[faysalciro]

Hi Sir
Today I was practicing question on time pressures, it was consolidation, what happen was that I did the workings of all GW, NCI, etc, but the I failed to post GW only in CSFP because of the time was over, so can I lose marks because I didn’t post the GW in CSFP or they will simply look my workings and see the GW calculation and give me my marks.
Thanks.

[faysalciro]

Hi Sir
I answered this section C question which this question includes and this is the part that I got wrong.

in initial recognition I used the PV of the cash flows (1,500, 1,500 and 26,500) of the three years which gave me
(1,389 +1,285.5 + 21,041)= 23,715.5 -1,000(transection cost) = 22,716 loan liability at inception and 1,817 of finance cost and loan note closing 23,033

but when I checked the book they recognized the par value of the Loan note and adjusted for transection cost which is
25,000-1000= 24,000
finance cost 1920.

in my knowledge I recognize the financial liabilities at PV of cash flows. so am I right. give me a tip to use in the exam and real life.

I was marking for my self and because of taking PV instead of par value I got two figures wrong, Finance cost and loan note liability in SFP both so if you can help me with I need to know that if I can be entitled to OWN FIGURE mercy in the exam.

thanks in advance.

[faysalciro]

thank you very much

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much sir. I also need to watch that very lecture if you can tell me the topic or link. Thanks.

[faysalciro]

Thaank you very much. I see it.

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much Sir

[faysalciro]

This comment is in under the answer of this question in BPP text.

The fall in MARKET SIZE is uncontrollable by management of PG and therefore results in PLANNING variance. The fall in MARKET SHARE is controllable and forms part of the OPERATIONAL variance.

This is the part I don’t understand “The fall in MARKET SHARE is controllable and forms part of the OPERATIONAL variance”

I understand how market share fall is caused by operation. But I thought the “market share fall = operational variance”, but thet is not the case as they are saying marketshare fall is only one part of operational variance. So can you help me with it Sir.

[faysalciro]

Hi Sir, I like to ask you some questions from this question and as searched I see 2 previous questions so that I am referencing here thinking that I you can remember it.

1. In Kaplan book when answering this question said that is it is impossible to use algebraic method for this question. Is it true? And why not as I can have all the informations that will be given if algebraic method should be used.

2. If the fixed costs of the problem are stepped cost, algebraic method cannotbe used, one the comments in the answer of the question. Is it correct?

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much sir.

[faysalciro]

Any update from them sir?

[faysalciro]

Thank you sir.

[faysalciro]

Sir sorry to bother you?
But today they said we have one option which is to wait till the next Wednesday since the exam was bought and no refund option but the coming Wednesday they will held the exam whether we take the ones canceled or a new one they will buy for us if the old exam is not reusable.
I don’t know what to do, because I can’t loose my exam fee, but I know they can’t be trusted.
So do can I refuse and insist the refund and book my exam remotely with ACCA and take my money back?
Do I have the right to take my exam fe back from them and say I don’t care what ever your excuse is.
Thanks.
SIMAD is the center.

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much sir.

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much

[faysalciro]

Yes professor.
Thank you.

[faysalciro]

Given this information:

Consideration transfered 21,000
Fair value of NCI 11,800
Retained earnings 2,000
Share Capital 30,000
Good will 800

I was asked share of post acquisition Retained earnings.
I used 37.5% from 21,000/33,600(21,000+11,800+800).

But the book is used 30% I wonder why?

So professor please help me with that.

[faysalciro]

Thank you very much.

[faysalciro]

Now I understand why I couldn’t figure out.
I didn’t yet watched and learned cash flow and I sow the question in the incomplete records.
Thank you very much.

[faysalciro]

At the beginning of the year, the allowance for receivables was $850. At the year end, the allowance required was $1000. During the year $500 of debts were written off, which includes $100 previously included in the allowance for receivables.
What is the charge to statement of profit or loss for receivables expense for the year?
? $1,500
? $1,000
? $650 (the choice of the kit book)
? $550

I chose ? $550, and I took the assumption that irrecoverable debts written off were included $100 previously included in allowance.

So please help me why the are ignoring that assumption?

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