[fatimasaid123]

Hi,

Thank you.

I think the difference in treatment is the fact that in Q 3 it is written that the financial asset is aligned with the FVTOCI business model. In BPP study text, it is written that

“gains and losses on financial asset held within a business model whose objective is achieved by both collecting cash flows and selling financial asset, and which must be classified at FVTOCI, must be re-classified to profit and loss when the asset is sold”

[fatimasaid123]

Thank you.

[fatimasaid123]

Thank you

That is exactly what I thought so I am confused as to why the marking scheme stated that it is an adjusting event.

[fatimasaid123]

Thank you very much.

[fatimasaid123]

Thanks for the quick reply.

But I was always under the impression that in a cash flow hedge of future purchase, the full 3 million should have been reclassified to p/l when the steel was purchased. How to know when to reclassify in stages and when the full amount should be reclassified at purchase?

Thanks

[fatimasaid123]

No problem Sir. 🙂

Thank you very much for all your help and the wonderful lectures. I truly appreciate it 🙂

[fatimasaid123]

At around 11:54, you mention that the marriage allowance is available.

[fatimasaid123]

Hi,

My problem is solved now.

Thank you very much.

[fatimasaid123]

Hi,

Thanks for the quick response.

It is lecture 6 of chapter 2. The lecture which is 50:44 long.
At around 11:54, you mention that marriage allowance is available.

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