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El

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Active 9 years ago
  • Topics: 3
  • Replies: 8
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Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • September 16, 2015 at 1:43 pm #272153
    mysteryEl
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    • Topics: 3
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    I think the debt value should be deducted as the whole growth figures were based on geared capital structure, including the 10% WACC which is presumably less than the current all-equity cost of capital
    Overall, ACCA is a joke. This is my second attempt -failed in June- and this exam is at least 10 times easier which makes me think they want to apologise for June paper which was hopelessly unworkable

    June 3, 2015 at 2:03 pm #252464
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
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    I practised a lot but it doesn’t matter since I couldn’t show that on the exam
    I think its more about grinding out marks than intensive preparation as the calculations involved are overwhelming really

    June 3, 2015 at 2:00 pm #252463
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    pent too much time in NPV, I got negative marginal with 12% positive with 9%, wasted too much time on NPV, I guess where I failed the paper

    May 14, 2014 at 4:59 pm #168796
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
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    Mike,
    Absolutely spot on, no need to check it again.
    Thanks a bunch!

    May 14, 2014 at 11:21 am #168774
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Thanks very much, that what I thought too although it’s very confusing as to how they posted the cash transaction without adjusting the investment in Stem accounts!

    May 13, 2014 at 10:41 am #168638
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
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    ginadaqing, what question you mean?

    May 11, 2014 at 8:46 pm #168401
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
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    This is one super complicated question, but I did some research and here’s what I found.

    It depends on the timing of the loan and whether it is downstream or upstream.
    If it’s been on the parent’s books for more than a year before parent gainig control, the gain or loss is posted to P/L this is because similar gain or loss must’ve been posted to P/L on previous periods (this is for upstream trans ie parents’ loan to sub).
    So, in consolidation, using the historical rate will automatically adjust the gain or loss to the balancing figure of the exchange reserve, then the double entry will be on the historic rate
    : DB Non Current Liability
    CR Financial Asset
    If the loan is on the same period of acquisition, it is then a monetary item and on practice it is adjusted on the transferred consideration and is cleared on the acquisition date.
    Hope this is helpful!

    May 10, 2014 at 3:45 pm #168248
    mysteryEl
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 8
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    Based on the answer to q1 June 2011, the exchange rates to be used are:
    Share Capital Historic
    Pre-acq RE Historic
    Post-acq RE Average
    Revaluation Surplus and Other Component of Equity should be treated accordingly depending on whether they were acquired pre-acquisition or post acquisition.
    I hope this is relevant!

    I have a question on the same exam same question
    WHARE IS THE ADJUSTMENT TO THE $19m TO THE CURRENT ASSETS (OR CASH)??????
    I wasted mighty 2HOURS trying to find it
    Please HELP HELP HELP !!!

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Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)

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