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Passed with 51,not great,but with 2 months self study with OT, for the 1st attempt I am still happy, 3 more to go, hope I will pass all of them with 1st attempt like I did before.Many thanks to OT.
Hey Mike,
Please ignore my question. I missed one sentence in the question and that is why I had misunderstood. It is clear for me now that the contributions paid to the scheme is the outflow from the company. Thanks.
Thanks Mike. But then comes to another question. If this is the worst positon, why the globle investers want to convert the loan stock to shares at this stage? Shouldn’t they avoid instead? And convert to shares when it is best for them?
Hey Ahsanpervez,
Do you mean the Consolidated RE? It accounts for dividends already. Look at parent Grainger’s RE figure 110,000. It has already been deducted the dividend.
Back to my question again.yes, G/W was impared in 2002, but according to question, $9298 is the figure before impairment, and is as at 31 December,2004. So I dont know why it goes to NCI in 31.12.2003 when Mike is calculating the net G/W?