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Hi. Pls add me too. 0169260501
For Q1, got a loss before tax for all 4 years, anyone else the same?
Agreed Pa=Pe as well for BSM.
For Q2, all 3 companies have market capitalization exceeding the amount calculated by Dividend Valuation model, anyone else the same? Didn’t know how to explain too.
Dear John,
In the BPP studytext, Practice Answer Bank, for the question of Canadian Inc:
There is a debt beta of 0.25. And the Kd is obtained using CAPM
ie KD= 8% + (16% – 8%) 0.25= 10%.
I thought the CAPM can only be used to calculate Ke? Hoping you could clarify. Thx
