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One more thing Mr John,
Why do they purchase the June call option to protect against a weakening EUR?
In my opinion, they will receive EUR in the future-> they should sell EUR ( hence buy USD).
They want to receive as much USD as possible-> USD strengthening (or EUR weakening) is favorable
so I wonder why they purchase June call option to protect against a weakening EUR which is favorable to them?
Please help me. Thank you!
Thank you John!
It helps me alot
Hi Mr John,
I also have a query regarding this question.
I am using Kaplan, it is question 23.
When calculating the expected future price 0.8650, they noted in the answer that it could be done using spot rate or forward rate.
Can you demonstrate for us that way to calculate expected future price?
Thank you!
Oh, I got it, thank you very much!
It’s been almost a year now. So guys, please continue to share your tips for passing this subject. Thanks!!
@hopeneverdies said:
AFM 70
AAA 49……I. am in pain…
Just like ur name “hopeneverdies”. I am sure that next time, u will pass AAA.
BTW, ur AFM was amazing. Any tips for us?
Thank you!
Passed with 69%. Next subject will be Advanced FM (P4), which is really far harder. Anyway, congrats all of you who passed this FM.
@johnmoffat said:
As I explain in my free AFM lectures, there are two approaches you can use to deal with tax. In Paper FM (was F9) you never have tax losses and so both approaches give the same result. However in AFM there are often tax losses involved and therefore you need to use the approach in the answer – I explain this (with examples) in my free lectures on investment appraisal.
I got it, thank you Sir
