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  • February 14, 2017 at 6:31 am #372322
    413aa87e7b92fdd2a24adce5c381aef711b1dfa2fdb297152f8bd105686be448 80dodydurian4u
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    From the explanation above, it seems as though we are not allowed to depreciate the revalued portion from the Retained Earnings.
    What is the logic behind transferring from revaluation Reserve to Retained Earning?
    Why do we want to make it distribuatable?

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