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- September 8, 2018 at 8:35 am #472282
Arent we suppose to multiply this by 6/3? Six months to receive over 3 months of the contract duration? I got 1280… looks wrong tho.
September 8, 2018 at 7:53 am #472272Hi. Do you remember how you got 640 contracts?
June 18, 2015 at 9:10 am #257590Hi sir,
Thanks for uploading your suggested answer…I do have some query if i may ask… If it is not too much to ask could u assist me?
Q5. The NCI share of post acquisition profit was not suppose to be added to the value at acquisition?
Q12. Present value is the same as fair value? i remember i got confused in the exam about this one…
Q13. The depreciation should not be time apportioned since 6years have passed? (3600/(12000/20))
Thank you
June 18, 2015 at 8:14 am #257577@sis00 said:
I think in Q8 we deal with
I – 40% associate
II – sub since Germane has ability to convert loan into equity shares
III – 49% associate
When we consider parent we deal with subs and associates so my choice is DI think you are right even though i think i chose C, it makes sense as a parent can have both sub and associate’s relationship…
June 18, 2015 at 7:58 am #257570Hey guys, for number 3, wasnt C suppose 2 be the right answer because it asked for non adjusting event and as i see it the settlement of an insurance claim for a loss sustained in December 2014 would have to be recognised as a contingent asset.. What do you think?
June 17, 2015 at 1:40 pm #257461Hi,
The full paper is out on ACCA’s site… No suggested answers for atleast section A?June 4, 2015 at 11:22 am #252979This exam was very hard compared to december 2014 past paper which i practised and scored quite well. The MCQ question was so confusing and seemed to have 2 correct answer of which now you’d have to guess the correct one. Q3 was realy hard considering the time presure we had and all of its requirments not to mention the confusing notes. The one for NCA said that ‘depreciation should be charged on a straight line basis asuming the asset had 5 years useful life. No asset is more than 4 years old’ what was it with that last part? Were we suppose to calculate depreciation for the other ppe by dividing the acumulated depreciation of 19000 by 4? Or the cost by 5? Crap. It was too confusing…
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