[denis2018]

Hi,

Maybe I was unclear in my ques. This is just to bring figures from the examples:

– in basic EPS example in order to calculate free part of shares, we calculated theoretical ex-rights price (which was lower then market price).

– in diluted EPS example in order to calculate free part of shares, we used market price.

Question: why do we take different prices for calculated the same free shares?
Thank you!

[Author]

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