[John]

Hi folks.

Quick question about the redraft of the investment appraisal in Q4: in the exam, I inflated sale price, VC and FC from t1, and used the given WACC as DF, but now I’m wondering if this was correct: should there be no inflation at all if no nominal rate is given?! There seem to be differing opinions on this from previous comments and I really need to know!
Good luck to everyone!
Cheers!

[Author]

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