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actually we were not the last yr of auditor.it was done by some other firm.Could ve apply analytical procedures on opening bal ?
Is it jst dat you keep the materiality threshold low to cater the above mention situation.
But if the negotiation were in the process regardless it wasnt announced to public .The condition of the future event exited before the year end.Doesn’t it make a n adjusting event?
but the risk and reward has been transfered ,there is jst an option attached .there is no compulsion .still its not sale?
One more question in the answer of june 2009 ribby hall and zian
post acqusition reserve are translated through balencing figure of share capital+pre acquisition reserve + Fv adjustment -net asset at yr end.
But in question june 2011 ROSE post acqusition reserves were translated by dividing average year xchange rate .
i am confused which is the right way?i want to knw .statment of financial position p/l and disposal of subsi and associate r thes topics stil xaminable in p2 exams or not.?
U meant if any investment held at FAIR VALUE THROUGH OCI turn into ASSOCIATE OR SUBSIDARY would hv to be classified as FV THROUGH P/L.
neither i m testing you nor i m lazy .i tired to understand from the solution but dint get.
It says The benefit allocated to each year will be this figure divided by 5 yrs.That is $ 884000 per year.The current service cost is the PV of this amount at 30 april2011.That is 884000 divided by 1.08 for four years that is $ .065m
I m nt geting . where the figure of $884000 comes from and y wd be divided by 1.08yes as per the solution but i dont understand y
at 1may 2010 cost 20 -2.6=17.4
As the the 3yrs have passed away .Arent we going to depriciate from remaining 3 yrs.
depriciation.17.4/3=5.8
