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- July 28, 2012 at 12:16 am #102092
Zeba!!!! Congratulations!!!!! Well done I knew you’ll pass amazing feeling its passing any exams!!!! π Yes
Wow!!! Tough theory question Gosh!!! They always play a bit part on these exams I think. Well let’s see how it goes for me happy with 52% will keep you posted π
Ishika good luck to you too π
July 27, 2012 at 4:28 pm #102088Hi Ishika,
Thanks for your message. Yes agree F2 is quite hard topic. I’m following BPP Study Material books plus and i-pass CD that prepared you for CBE if you not seating paper exam.
Good luck to you too π
July 26, 2012 at 11:03 pm #102086Hi Zeba,
The college made a mistake with my exam venue listing me for Liverpool City instead of Liverpool Street here in London. Drama!!! I was fuming :(. So no exam they change the booking to the 1st of August instead. Another few extra days to keep practising.
Good luck!!! Zeba let me know!!!! Fingers cross for you I’m sure you pass very clever girl!!!
If you need working experience you can practice in the company I work for.xxxx
Good luck again!!!!!!xxxx Speak soonJuly 24, 2012 at 7:32 pm #102084Hi Zeba,
This one is definitely a hard one the asnwers is : $250,000 it has perpuity & annuity steps to do.
Maybe for the first year 20,000 x ?
2nd Year $25,000 x (0.010)=250
Inconclusive?
I will let you know tomorrow if I pass, going to Liverpool St BPP Centre in the afternoon plus will let you know some of the questions as well
Keep practising π
I’m nervous already!!!!!!!!!!!!!July 24, 2012 at 2:30 pm #102082Hi Zeba:-)
Glad you also learning with my questions π They are mainly from BPP Material Books Study.
My last day revising the topics! My strong subjects are Variance Analysis, Accounting for Overheads and Marginal & Absorption Costing. Not too clever with Cash Flows, discounting payback & Annuity calculations:-(
Could you be so kind and help me with this question:An investment will generate a net cash inflaw of $20,000 at the end of its first year. This will rise to $25,000 at the end of the second year and remain at $25,000 per annum in perpetuity. The relevant discount rate is expected to be 8% in the first year and 10% in second and subsequent years.
What is the present value of the cash inflaws?Hammering my head at the moment! π
July 24, 2012 at 2:17 pm #102059Hi Zeba,
What a coincidence! your 1st Paper fingers cross for both:-)!
July 23, 2012 at 9:36 pm #102057Hi Zeba,
I was looking every other hour for your answer π and yes you did so pleased! My name is Ismari (croki11 is just my username) F2 will be my first ACCA exam already have AAT Level 3 but ACCA didn’t gave me any exemptions:-( from Knowledge level.
Is this your first exam?July 23, 2012 at 9:12 pm #102080Hi Zeba,
Don’t have words to thank you for responding this question:-) Full of joy my face! Wow! Annuaty table to collect the values did not see this feature at all! but as you mentioned cash flow generated each Year! bingoxxx I can sleep now and keep practising. I’m presenting the exam this Wednesday 25th CBE let’s see how it goes.
Have you presented the exam already? If you did I’m sure you have passed 100 marks! π So clever need your brain he,he,he,he!!!!!!
Thanks so much!!! Good night!!! π
PS: Doing more exercises still πJuly 23, 2012 at 3:17 pm #102055Hi Zeba,
Thanks so much for answering the question really appreciated π
I wasn’t sure of calculating the closing inventory but everything is clear now!!!Thanks!!!!! You wont mind answering another question I have on Calculating the Present Value of Cash Flows?
July 22, 2012 at 11:09 pm #102044Congratulations! Thanks for the tip:-)
July 9, 2012 at 8:09 pm #99681Hi,
Thanks but I’m presenting the CBE on 25th of July still ? if I pass!
I’m practising with i-Pass CD material from BPP and thumps up, you’re a genius with only 1 week πJuly 9, 2012 at 3:33 pm #99679Great Feeling! :-)I want to pass as well. I’m studying with BPP so text book material all the wayxxx
July 9, 2012 at 3:20 pm #101619Hi,
Great answer I am learning as well with this explanation:-) ThanksJuly 9, 2012 at 3:04 pm #101865Hello π
Thanks so much for answering my question I have been cheeking since this morning and here is its!
I need to make a note on this formulae:
Return of investment -Cost of Capital =Residual Income
I ‘m studying by BPP Books Material can’t see this Formulae.Highly appreciated your response I can really make sense of all the steps to get the percentage π
Many thanksssssssssss
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