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- May 15, 2012 at 3:53 pm #82642
This still does not explain it though. Where does the 1.65 for a 5% chance and 2.33 for a 1% chance come from? is is expected that we know this? do we perform a calculation? if so what? it refers to the standard devation table – this does not work for me, unless I am using it wrong? I have searched everywhere for answers and all I get is the same to figures, 1.65 and 2.33 – where do they come from??!! : (
a reply would be mucg appreciated.
thanks vicky
May 12, 2012 at 2:06 pm #72102I would also like to know how the formula is rearranged to derive Kei.
June 14, 2011 at 1:52 pm #85097Really disappointed with myself : (
June 11, 2011 at 4:35 pm #84604Hi,
You are not allowed correction fluid. Saying that, I used a correction mouse, not the wet correction fluid and nothing was said, and I passed. But, to be fair I only used it about 3 times on words, if it was excessive use I dont think they would be too happy!! Just learn to cross things out and restate, i know it looks untidy but it’s what they want.
June 17, 2010 at 8:42 pm #62993Hey Guys, we need to fill in the exam review feedback form to ACCA, and state that you felt time was an issue (if you did!) as it seems to be the general feeling on the post. They wont know if we dont tell them! : )
June 15, 2010 at 4:35 pm #62925WTF! I have failed! lost my timing, and didnt even how to tackle q4&5! Dec 2010 for me.
June 11, 2010 at 4:38 pm #63952I am in the same boat! After spending most of my time off work studying for F8 I am completly freaking out about F7 now! I just dont know where to start or what to do first!
At the moment I am just studying what ill prop come up in Q1 &2. I have Kaplan tips and they said Q3 would be cashflow and ratio analysis Q4&5 Leases and impairment, IASB Framework substance over form?
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