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- November 23, 2021 at 10:22 am #641378
Thank you Sir. Please I asked following my study of the issue in CGT.
January 13, 2020 at 2:52 pm #558417Thank God I made it successfully.God bless all the OT resource persons. Your effort is well appreciated.
May God comfort anyone who failed and all the best next time.
January 13, 2020 at 2:46 pm #558415Thank God I made it successfully.God bless all the OT resource persons. Your effort is well appreciated.
May God comfort anyone who failed and all the best next time.
December 5, 2019 at 7:07 pm #555203Thank you very much.
Please, with reference to your answer to (3) if you could throw some light on the approach to the Joint Probability question in March/June 2018.
December 5, 2019 at 3:06 pm #5551294. Please I also need clarification about the dividend theories.
In the note and other text, I see dividend irrelevance, residual, relevance (clientele, signalling). But I read the article on dividend theories and I saw some DVM, Gordon’s growth and others.
Please kindly help me out,December 1, 2019 at 11:15 pm #554368Thank you Sir.
December 1, 2019 at 11:30 am #554318Thank you Sir.
November 29, 2019 at 3:24 pm #554156Thank you Sir.
November 28, 2019 at 11:32 pm #554090That is, when you’re required to state some number of Audit risk (say 7 audit risk), is it appropriate to state 2 separate risks out of the 7 about one item, maybe inventory, or you have to put them together as 1.
November 28, 2019 at 3:48 pm #554044Wow, thank you Sir. ?
November 28, 2019 at 3:46 pm #554042Wow, thank you Sir. ?
November 28, 2019 at 3:35 pm #554040Thank you Sir.
November 14, 2019 at 1:07 am #552514Thank you very much Sir.
November 13, 2019 at 9:25 am #552382Please I had the following and I’d like you to check for me.
Conversion options:
1. Shares = 18*(5*1.04^6) = $113.88
2. Cash = $95So, the Principal will be $113.88
Market value (MV) ex int = $80, given in the question.Interest after tax = (100*10%)*(1-0.30) = $7
Please, after checking the above work for me, now I have the MV, Interest and Principal.
The kd of Convertible debt is the IRR.
The loan was issued 4 years ago and has 6 years left. So, when discounting, how many years should I use for the MV, Interest and Principal?November 13, 2019 at 4:59 am #552367Thanks Sir for the response. It’s been helpful.
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