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armaghanbutt

Profile picture of armaghanbutt
Active 5 years ago
  • Topics: 27
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  • December 5, 2016 at 6:35 am #353903
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    i mean group restructuring sec B came in june 16

    December 5, 2016 at 5:23 am #353896
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    they minus from cost of invesvtmnet but in group RE they add reclassify DIVIDEND from OCI ..
    for sub..if subsi paid dividend of 4
    so in consol we will ignore ? no need to add or minus in RE ? OR we need to take our portion based on our holding like 60% x4

    December 4, 2016 at 9:57 pm #353851
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    if already in RE thn we ignore ? only minus from cost of investmnt ?

    December 4, 2016 at 8:24 pm #353834
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    i m asking dividend treatment in cosol.
    if in question Associate pay dividend is in other comprehensive income (OCI) than we will minus from OCI and add in Retained earning ?

    2) if the qustn states associates pay dividend of e.g 4 ..so we will minus from retain earning ?

    3) general treatment if subsidiary pay dividend , where minus and add

    December 4, 2016 at 7:16 pm #353802
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    sir , my qustn left 🙂

    November 26, 2016 at 12:28 pm #351624
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    Thanks this qustn eat my whole day
    thanks once again

    November 26, 2016 at 11:00 am #351603
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    2250 – 40 + 1 =1020 + 900 + 70 – 5 + XXX (balancing figure of ndl adj which is 266)

    i m doing like this
    2250 – 40 + 1 = 2211
    1020 + 900 + 70 – 5 = (1985)
    =226

    November 26, 2016 at 10:27 am #351580
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    if add 5 is 226 hv to add fv adjustmnt also of 40 also ?

    November 26, 2016 at 10:14 am #351569
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    if i use 2211-1020 share cap -900 re – 70 oce = 221

    and for asset held for sale (HFS))
    14.1- dep = 13.9 thn it classify as HFS at fair value 15.4 thn tested for imapairment ,not impair VIU is high.. thn HFS is measured at lower of carrying amont 15.4 or fair value less cost to sell 15.1 ……i m correct ?
    but now whn it for 15.6 .. the gain should not be .5 -.3 (loss on 15.4 -15.3) – .1 (dep)

    November 26, 2016 at 9:02 am #351562
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    i mean when calculating for NDL we use 2250 book value or can use adjusted 2211 (2250-40+1) …

    November 26, 2016 at 8:48 am #351557
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    non depreciable land 🙂

    November 26, 2016 at 8:39 am #351552
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    but when calculating NDL these adjustment hve to include ?

    November 26, 2016 at 8:19 am #351548
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    NA 2250 -40 due to decrease + 1 remeasurement gain / reduction in liabilty.. correct ?

    November 26, 2016 at 6:26 am #351540
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    in same questn KUctchen note 3 , fair value of NA we dnt portion so here carrying value is given that s y x80%

    November 26, 2016 at 3:00 am #351521
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    hi , if its a decrease why we add 40 ?

    November 25, 2016 at 9:50 am #351372
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    robby june 2012 note 5

    November 20, 2016 at 2:18 pm #350151
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    sir , i also have same problem for factor rec. 4 – 3.60 = loss of .40
    but why its added in RE

    Factoring trade receivables 0·40

    October 25, 2016 at 6:22 am #345923
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    just saw lecture.. thanks

    September 8, 2016 at 4:32 pm #339093
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    so my all workings is correct of inflows ,tax ,Ca ? as i took CA 10 yrs – rate 4 yrs =2.787

    August 15, 2016 at 8:18 am #333224
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    i also have same issue , same question warden dec 11 Q1
    project 5 yrs .. . tax one year in arrears.
    PV of sales 1600 x 3.696 (5yrs) = 5913.6
    tax 1600 x .3 = 480 x3.33 (annuity 6 -1 ) =( 1598.4)
    =4315.2
    this one correct ?
    examiner answer
    The PV of sales revenue = 100,000 x 16 x 3·696 = $5,913,600
    The tax liability associated with sales revenue needs be considered, as the NPV is on an after-tax basis.
    Tax liability arising from sales revenue = 100,000 x 16 x 0·3 = $480,000 per year
    The PV of the tax liability without lagging = 480,000 x 3·696 = $1,774,080
    (Alternatively, PV of tax liability without lagging = 5,913,600 x 0·3 = $1,774,080)
    Lagging by one year, PV of tax liability = 1,774,080 x 0·901 = $1,598,446
    After-tax PV of sales revenue = 5,913,600 – 1,598,446 = $4,315,154

    August 10, 2016 at 9:51 am #332384
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    I mean like before tax 7% and aftr tax 12% .. we will take 12 % unless question say ignore taxation

    July 16, 2016 at 9:04 am #326066
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    one more question , in DEC 12 q3 BKB for calculating cost of prefeernce share why they didnt took tax?
    Q. 5% Preference shares ($1 nominal value) 10m
    the ex-dividend market value of the preference Shares is $6·25 million
    examiner working :
    Kp = 100 x (0·05 x 10m/6·25m) = 8%

    my wrkng : .05 x 70% = .035
    6.25/10=.625
    =.035/.625 = 5.6
    why tax not taken up ?

    July 15, 2016 at 4:02 am #325939
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    so in calculating term TERP issue cost will not subract or add.?
    calculating market cap we will subract
    calculating finance raised we will add?

    July 14, 2016 at 10:41 am #325851
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    i am confused in issue cost where to subract or add it .. TERP will include issues cost ? impact on market capitalisation ?
    like dec 09 NG CO Q3 they added issue cost where as it THP they subract

    NG CO

    The amount of equity finance to be raised in dollars = 5m + 0·312m = $5·312m

    July 14, 2016 at 6:30 am #325826
    mysteryarmaghanbutt
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    sir < q 2 THP CO june 2008

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