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- November 5, 2011 at 4:26 am #88823
in an efficient market ,according to the MM theory ?dividend is irrevalent,and that the Profit is always the king.however,the price of share arise,indicate a higher need of the share,in the EMH,investor may see a high expectations of Prudential’s growth in the future,and this lead to an up of the price.From this point of view,it seems that the asian buyer is rational ,however,the potential price is 20%higher than the market price.Thus,i suppose the investor of the asian is not rational,AIA may be rational i guess.
November 5, 2011 at 3:55 am #88883with IRR method ,u should spread it to several years and discont it with discount factor.eg.Y0,Y1,Y2…. and next u need to calculate the NPV of Market value ,interest of every year, the last capital repayment.be cautious of the interst rate,as it should consider the tax factor.I donnt really know so called”treating the debt as irredeemable first”,because whether is redeemable or not,it should always be pointed out.I hope can help u
November 3, 2011 at 1:53 pm #88993thanks a lot~
June 14, 2011 at 10:52 pm #85016time and pressure matter
June 10, 2011 at 5:45 am #82885yeah,the answer is right,because we only eliminate the intra-group transaction ,the first question seem like to have 6 months NON-GROUP transaction,which is seperated from the group.so just treat it as usual.Now,can u figure the secound out?best wishes and good luck for u @14 July
May 29, 2011 at 11:43 am #82454First of all,thank u your reply and consolation
But i donnot think this what i want.I mean we always consider the PROPERTY as LAND+BUILDING,donnot we?
or else the property is just building itself?May 27, 2011 at 10:54 pm #82424i will post it again on monday,thank u
May 27, 2011 at 12:40 pm #82382donot forget add NCI’s share of goodwill into Parent’s.and also allocate impairment loss of goodwill to each part by their shares of subusidiary.
May 27, 2011 at 12:36 pm #82380yeah?correct,75%*fv of s @DOA,and if its requirement is let u use the new method,which means it gave u the FV of NCI at the date of aquisiton,u should also use 25%*FV of S@DOA then deduct it from the FV of NCI@aquisition.HOpe u can get it,by the way,happy weekend!
May 27, 2011 at 8:53 am #82378equity 80+40+134,fv adjust 20,titanware 40,decapitalised (18) total 314. cost of investment 310. i think what next to you is very easy,do u think so?
May 26, 2011 at 4:05 pm #82060thanks a lot, i got it
May 26, 2011 at 3:58 pm #82028i got understood a little.However,i hate such question which is not clear in Definition of terms.I thought retained earnings is just retained earnings.Revalation reserve/surplus(gain on avail for sale) should not be a part of the RE. OMG,what a mess!In the exam i will do it in my way so that i will not make any mistake.Hope steven scott will agree that!whatever,i will thank u all,thanks a lot!
May 26, 2011 at 3:58 pm #82027i got understood a little.However,i hate such question which is not clear in Definition of terms.I thought retained earnings is just retained earnings.Revalation reserve/surplus(gain on avail for sale) should not be a part of the RE. OMG,what a mess!In the exam i will do it in my way so that i will not make any mistake.Hope steven scott will agree that!whatever,i will thank u all,thanks a lot!
May 26, 2011 at 2:27 pm #82058The name is Plateau i remember,it is the first of consolidation question of the 2007/12.Hope U can find it!
May 26, 2011 at 12:07 am #82056but textbook tells that gain on available for sale goes into Equtity reserve.Is Retained earnings is a part of equity reserve,if so,what is the balance account’s name in the Equity of BS?
May 24, 2011 at 12:14 am #82020according to IAS32 available for sale asset should credit into equity reserve which also reflected in other comprehensive income.only held for sale@ fv through P&L can go directly to the IS,also reflected in the retained earnings.thus answer was wrong here,i suppose.
May 24, 2011 at 12:13 am #82019according to IAS32 available for sale asset should credit into equity reserve which also reflected in other comprehensive income.only held for sale@ fv through P&L can go directly to the IS,also reflected in the retained earnings.thus answer was wrong here,i suppose.
May 23, 2011 at 3:09 pm #82017sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:09 pm #82016sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:08 pm #82015sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:08 pm #82014sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:08 pm #82013sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:07 pm #82012sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:07 pm #82011sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
May 23, 2011 at 3:07 pm #82010sorry,i made a mistake.it is the first question in 12/2007,likely named plateau.i think examiner’s answer was wrong on the available for sale asset.do u think so?
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