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anonymous

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Active 8 years ago
  • Topics: 17
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Viewing 25 posts - 1 through 25 (of 31 total)
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  • March 28, 2016 at 8:46 am #308455
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Okay…Thank you Sir. Very clear.

    December 20, 2015 at 10:20 am #292254
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    How is lead payment calculated ?? I used the spot rate to calculate it. what did all of you do?

    September 28, 2015 at 8:19 am #273935
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    Thank you so much Sir !!

    September 16, 2015 at 9:57 am #272108
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Thank you very much.

    Very well explained….thank you Sir!!! 🙂

    August 31, 2015 at 9:38 pm #269365
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Thank you ever so much Sir.
    God Bless You abundantly!!

    August 3, 2015 at 7:27 pm #265273
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    49 marks 🙁

    August 3, 2015 at 7:25 pm #265272
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    Thanks to my God…I passed P2 with 52 marks. Have heard that P2 is tough to pass in the first attempt, by God’s grace got through it. 🙂

    August 3, 2015 at 7:19 pm #265265
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Got 51 marks for P1. 🙂 I did self-study, used open tuition lectures.
    Never thought I would pass. Thank God.
    Thank you Sir Mike for your advices!
    God Bless you!

    July 8, 2015 at 5:44 pm #260178
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    ok…thank you.

    July 8, 2015 at 5:09 pm #260155
    Avataranonymous
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    This doubt is from the lecture impact of financing, example 2.
    part b, There it is mentioned thus: ‘without debt, wacc = 20%, with debt, wacc = 18 something%.’

    I was trying to figure out that wacc .
    equity-70% , debt- 30%

    cost of capital of equity- 20%

    cost of capital of debt- 3.5%
    [kd=i(1-t)/P0 = 1.5(1-0.3)/30]

    so wacc of equity= 14, wacc of debt= 1.05
    Total wacc= 15.05%

    I am not getting 18% or so….:(

    July 8, 2015 at 4:17 pm #260128
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    Fully understood. Thank you so much. I enjoy all your lectures. I feel like saying it a million times. Your explanation is so logical..which is what I like the most!
    Thanks so much again.

    July 8, 2015 at 2:56 pm #260113
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Sir, where all do we assume debt is risk free? Is it only in ‘ ungearing betas’ and ‘Modigliani’ questions?

    June 20, 2015 at 3:58 pm #258196
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Thank you very much Sir. 🙂

    May 23, 2015 at 9:05 am #248092
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    • ☆

    Thank you Sir

    April 16, 2015 at 2:19 pm #241531
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    thank you very much Sir.

    April 16, 2015 at 9:09 am #241499
    Avataranonymous
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    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Ok. Thanks so much Sir.

    March 9, 2015 at 9:29 am #231775
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    Yes, agreed. Thanks Sir!!! 🙂

    March 9, 2015 at 9:26 am #231773
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Now I got it . I seem to have forgotten the basics already (haha….)

    Thanks so much Sir.

    March 9, 2015 at 7:26 am #231762
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
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    Thank you Sir :). But this gain as a result of increase in fair value is fictitious and it should come in the balance sheet. Why is it then in the income statement?

    March 9, 2015 at 7:04 am #231759
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    It is also similar to an upward movement of an asset, like revaluation of plant, am I right?

    September 1, 2014 at 7:02 am #193180
    Avataranonymous
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    Ok. Thanks a lot Sir.

    August 30, 2014 at 8:49 am #193023
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    Sir, why do we have to cancel out the inter- group transactions? cash-in-transit is the same as inter-group transaction, am I right?

    August 30, 2014 at 8:43 am #193022
    Avataranonymous
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    • Topics: 17
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    ooh ok Sir. Thank you.

    August 28, 2014 at 9:38 am #192619
    Avataranonymous
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    Sir Mike, I listened to the dividends lecture. In working 3- cons. ret. earn- the proposed div. payable is clear to me. both Liamonas and Kristine have proposed div. to pay to each other 16000 and 10000 respectively.
    My doubt is–In the proposed div. receivable, why is the dividend eligible for Kristine to be recd. not added to her account? Also, how did you know that Liamonas have to receive 9000 only ? Is it from her share 90%? Then why Kristine is not receiving her share?

    August 27, 2014 at 10:46 am #192503
    Avataranonymous
    Member
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    I got the explanation. Thank you Sir.

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