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It wasn’t difficult or tricky but I run out of time and left last question incomplete. If I pass it will be by just luck. 🙁 Never mind, we’ll see in few weeks.
Hi,
Sorry, I just saw your post. I know Marty Windle from Kaplan Singapore has got a paying programme with notes etc where you can also send him a Mock exam to be marked but it might be too late now for March and due date for Dec18 was 24th Nov.
Good Luck!
Congratulations to all those who have passed P3!!! Could you post the approach you took to study?? Much appreciated!!
I’ve just sit F9 last Dec and if I have passed I am intending to do OBU RAP but I feel really overwhelmed as barely I have started to get the grip in how to study to pass ACCA exams but I have no idea how to tackle a project at university level. I thought to enrol with Kaplan to get a mentor as I am not working right now but cannot do it till Feb as I dont know if I pass… sorry but I am really confused and dont know what to do first. Is anybody in a similiar situation? TIA
Think i can help with this one. What is asked is the money we are going to receive from rec in may ( not the rec value for may!) therefore all rec from jan & feb are already received and in may you are going to receive the 40% of MAR sales (200 x (1.05^2) x40%) = $88,200 and the 60% of APR sales (200 x (1.05^3) x 60%)= $138,915. Therefore the cash collected from rec in May= 88200+139915=$227,115
You need to use the avg initial capital ie (160000 + 20000)/2.
avg annual profits / avr initial investment 15000/90000= 16.67%I beg your pardon! Error in calc as I thought! I understand now, sorry.
Many thanks!Sorry but I still cannot get it! I did exactly the same but (forgive me if its just a calc what I am not doing right) but my equity beta = 0.908 (1.2 x (70/(70+(1-0.25))))
ThanksHi there, yeah I supposed you are referring to the intangible asset of software $500,000. The question says:
“Also at the date of acquisition, Sander (sub) had an intangible asset of $500,000 for software in its statement of financial position. Picant’s (parent) directors believed the software to have no recoverable value at the date of acquisition and Sander wrote it off shortly after its acquisition”.
I cannot see either why it is included in the group retained earnings (from subs part) whilst deducting it as fair value adj when calculating goodwill ???
Could anybody help here?Thanks
Yes, thanks Mike. I misread the note referring to cash in transit and yes it is reflected in payables as well? Many Thanks
What I understand is the remote does not refer to location or proximitiy but that the loss must be reasonably foreseeable meaning that in order for a claim in negligence to be successful (to be considered by the court) the defendant should have been able to reasonably (always!) to foresee it to be able to prevent it.
I remember a case (but not its name) where due to an accident as a result of the defendant negligence a woman who was pregnant saw the accident and was so upset that she suffered illness and loss her baby (I think) but the defendant was not liable of her injury as he could not foresee that she would pass by and be ill because of the sight to the accident, therefore it was too remote. Not sure if you know what I mean. At last hope it can help.All the best.
Hi,
It might be some changes but the main syllabus is the same and you can always contrast your textbook with the opentuition notes here which are updated for 2013 exams.
All the best,
AluaThanks for your advice. I have emailed Acca Connect, just waiting for their response.
Cheers, Alua
1.5×100^(-0.074005)=1.066817814 (my CASIO fx-83ES has a bottom for the function x^ but when pressing it, it shows as above so maybe yours has a similar function or bottom).
Best wishes,
Alua
