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- August 22, 2014 at 7:09 am #191837
I had completed the online Ethics Module in Sept 2013. Is this valid for Nov 14 submission or I have to do it again ?
August 8, 2013 at 2:05 pm #13652250. Finally Affiliate.
THANKS VERY MUCH DEAR TEACHERS, OT TEAM. God BlessAugust 8, 2013 at 2:03 pm #136521Same was the case with me for p3 failed three times with 48,49,47 and finally passed with 79. the difference was i reduced the number of answer pages i used to wite to almost 1/3rd. Answered very specific to the requirements….
Best of luck for next timeApril 20, 2013 at 11:52 am #122960Assumes that:
total borrowing = required finance + issue cost
100% = 98% + 2%April 7, 2013 at 2:43 pm #121733the MV of property , land and building revalued at 20X8 @ 2297 plus MV of asset under construction $165, is given in the Q.
Therefore, the different b/w the total value minus property value of $ 2462April 7, 2013 at 2:21 pm #121732I just use calculator and round up the result at two decimal
April 7, 2013 at 2:12 pm #121730Possibly that the profit of 6,000 (24k -18k) on the disposal is netted against any other expense and not disclosed separately in arriving at the profit or loss figure …………… . Just a guess, haven’t gone through the F3 notes …..
February 23, 2013 at 1:16 pm #118627why would anyone think of resitting a passed exam, salute to ur confidence.
January 31, 2013 at 7:22 pm #114519I think only the ACCA can help you on this matter.
November 24, 2012 at 7:36 pm #108232THANK YOU
November 24, 2012 at 6:28 pm #108520thanks. which means at T0, the leder pays (10,000) and adjusts call option value 2241 (or 2234 which ever) which is actually payable by the leder at T5 ? and gets the net cashflow of -7,795??? is that correct please!
Also, why the number of shares (100) are included in cashflow, why not the value of the 100 shares(100*90)??
Can you please explain furtherNovember 22, 2012 at 9:54 am #108229Why we discount the debt of the company for using as Exercise price in valuation the company using BSOP Model, despite the fact that {e^(-rt)} in the BSOP formula is the built in discount factor discounting the Exercise price. Isn’t it double discounting of the exercise price?
Confused :(. kindly clarifyNovember 2, 2012 at 11:07 am #105488Use the formula {100* (1+r)^n = 110} to find out the KD for the Bond.
for bank term loan, you may assume that debt is risk free and use the Rf rate as KD.
using the KDs above, calculate the weighted average KD for the overall debt
use the weighted average KD *(1-T) to find out the WACCASSUMPTIONS:
1) No information about coupon is available so it is assumed it is a Zero Coupon Bond.
2) Bank term loan value assumed equals its carrying value.
3) Debt is risk free therefore risk free rate of return is usedNovember 2, 2012 at 10:08 am #105603@edward2012 said:
usualy the current price will take a form of a discounted present value. hence the $96.72 is the present value of the securities.THANKS, its quite clear now
August 21, 2012 at 11:28 am #10346937 only because of Q1
June 11, 2012 at 1:49 pm #99961Strictly followed the 1.8 ratio and attempted all the questions. hoping for good result.
Q 5 was on Business plan & PFI, asked:(a) matters to be considered when ageeing the terms of engagement; and (b) procedures to be applied on the Forecast Financials….February 14, 2012 at 5:51 pm #9402279 finally 🙂
My sincere thanks to Open Tuition , your support was the only difference b/w my previous attempt marks of 47,49,48, 48 and this 79. Wav !!!
I was shocked and lost. I could not understand what else i could do to get through. Finally I used the OT resources (for the first time) and made it with a good margin.Thanks, thanks and many thanks……….
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