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Ok thank for clearing this up & you are right because when I am applying option 3 balance sheet doesn’t tie up.
Ok, you mean that the change will be reflected in accounts receivable while we record working capital movement for receivable. Right??
Another question of mine is that what about other provisions like warranty provision or provision for any court case etc.??
And a last question sir, can this type company has any outflow that can be categorized as COGS. If there is that what outflows or expenses can be categorized as cost of goods sold?
So you are saying that right issue shares will only be issued to the existing shareholder if he takes up the right.
other wise shares will not be issued to that particular existing shareholder and if he doesn’t take the shares but other existing shareholders take there part of right issue than that particular existing shareholder will have his share price diluted due to right issue??
Sir if Company A owns 25% in Company B and Company C owns 75% in Company B than will Company B still be an associate for Company A?
Sir I watched it a long time ago, actually this question was related to SBR. In SBR there was a question related to Derivatives IFRS-9.
Thank you Sir for clarifying me on this. I will surely watch it again. 🙂
Thank you for the answer sir but I was just asking the logic behind not showing the impact of bank credit which is included in the subsequent entry for lessee accounting after year 0.
I heard an assumption that we don’t show the impact of bank credit in balance sheet bcoz the impact of bank credit has already been recorded (means that the payment has already been made during the year & recorded in balance sheet in lessee accounting) and the subsequent entry is just to ascertain the lease liability.
So I was just asking that does the said assumption exists or true?
To cut it short for you sir, in ifrs-16 we make the following entries i.e finance cost debit, lease liability debit and bank credit. But we only the impact of finance cost & lease liability. So I try to find the reason behind of not recording bank credit and I heard that there is an assumption behind not showing impact of bank credit.
The assumption is that we already record the lease rental payment bcoz we dont know the exact liability and we only pass the subsequent entry to asscertain our lease liability. The impact of lease payment in the form of bank credit is already there in the financial statement.
Is this assumption correct?
Sir another question of mine is that will Prepayment Asset received will be in current assets or fixed asset?
Sir I saw this question on an Acca page but was jot able to figure that which kit it referred to.
