Hi all, in Example 2, Ecuador: it states they revise the life expectancy of the asset to 5 yrs on 31 Dec 2014, one full year before the answer. Wouldn’t we apply the first revised depreciation to 2014, and then 2015? That provides an answer of 2x $2.5m and 2x $4m. Remaining Value = $12m.

This is where CIMA trip me up in exams, the questions can always be interpreted in many ways?

PS Loving the OpenTuition lectures. Thanks Chris !!!

Glad you’re enjoying the lectures, and I hope they help you pass the exam.

At the end of 2014 we will have charged a full year’s worth of depreciation already using the old estimate of 10 years because the revised life is applied at the end of the year and not the start of the year.

Having then done that we will then apply the new estimate to the carrying amount at that date and that will give us the depreciation charge for the future, i.e. the five remaining years on the asset.

Oops! There is a slight mistake in my answer but it isn’t when applying the original 20% reducing balance. Residual value is not relevant to reducing balance depreciation.

The mistake is in calculating the new depreciation charge under straight line where I didn’t deduct the 10,000 residual value from the 26,214 carrying value at the date of change in method. I was too engrossed in the example and had forgotten that the residual value was there.

Can I clarify the answer to example 3. I made it 1624 per annum due to deducting RV of 10000 from the CV then dividing by 10 years useful life (not 5 years)

I took the 80k x 80% over 5 years to get 26,214. Then I deducted the RV of 10k to get 16214 then divided that over the remaining useful life of 5 years to get dep’n charge of 3242.80.

Hi Per Lidia above I would have taken the 10k residual val from the 80k before calculating the reducing bal to Yr 5, as such Yr 5 CV = €22,937.6 and Dep Chg Yrs 6 – Yr10 = €4,587.52. Can you explain why the residual val was omitted in video? Thanks Ward

I don’t think so, the residual value is used when the company calculates this 20% %reducing_balance. (ps. the “company” has actually made an error, the 20% should have been 18.775% – this is the correct % that leaves RV of 10K after 10 years – but I guess for the exercise is simpler to round it up to 20%). After this calculation the RV is not taken into account for the CV calculation, only the %.

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1979stchristopher says

Hi all, in Example 2, Ecuador: it states they revise the life expectancy of the asset to 5 yrs on 31 Dec 2014, one full year before the answer. Wouldn’t we apply the first revised depreciation to 2014, and then 2015? That provides an answer of 2x $2.5m and 2x $4m. Remaining Value = $12m.

This is where CIMA trip me up in exams, the questions can always be interpreted in many ways?

PS Loving the OpenTuition lectures. Thanks Chris !!!

P2-D2 says

Hi,

Glad you’re enjoying the lectures, and I hope they help you pass the exam.

At the end of 2014 we will have charged a full year’s worth of depreciation already using the old estimate of 10 years because the revised life is applied at the end of the year and not the start of the year.

Having then done that we will then apply the new estimate to the carrying amount at that date and that will give us the depreciation charge for the future, i.e. the five remaining years on the asset.

Thanks

P2-D2 says

Hi,

Oops! There is a slight mistake in my answer but it isn’t when applying the original 20% reducing balance. Residual value is not relevant to reducing balance depreciation.

The mistake is in calculating the new depreciation charge under straight line where I didn’t deduct the 10,000 residual value from the 26,214 carrying value at the date of change in method. I was too engrossed in the example and had forgotten that the residual value was there.

Thanks

baroquechick86 says

Hi,

Can I clarify the answer to example 3. I made it 1624 per annum due to deducting RV of 10000 from the CV then dividing by 10 years useful life (not 5 years)

antonycima2 says

So the correct answer should be ( $26,214 -$10000) / 5 = $4553.6

teeceeabz says

Still confused over this one.

I took the 80k x 80% over 5 years to get 26,214.

Then I deducted the RV of 10k to get 16214 then divided that over the remaining useful life of 5 years to get dep’n charge of 3242.80.

Can the final answer please be clarified??

edit says

I have the same query re: residual value.

Thanks

warddunphy says

Hi

Per Lidia above I would have taken the 10k residual val from the 80k before calculating the reducing bal to Yr 5, as such Yr 5 CV = €22,937.6 and Dep Chg Yrs 6 – Yr10 = €4,587.52. Can you explain why the residual val was omitted in video?

Thanks

Ward

lidcar says

Hello,

I would like to ask you shouldn’t the residual value be deducted from original value when CV is calculated?

Thank you.

antonycima2 says

I don’t think so, the residual value is used when the company calculates this 20% %reducing_balance.

(ps. the “company” has actually made an error, the 20% should have been 18.775% – this is the correct % that leaves RV of 10K after 10 years – but I guess for the exercise is simpler to round it up to 20%).

After this calculation the RV is not taken into account for the CV calculation, only the %.