For Q2, to calculate the standard rate for hours worked, can we first calculate the standard cost per unit and divide that with the actual hours worked (like how you have explained in Example 5 of Lecture videos)?
If so, standard cost per unit would be
1.65hrs x $15/hr = $24.75
Therefore, the standard rate for hours worked would be $24.75/1.5hrs = $16.5

But when we do it $15 x 100/90, the same answer wouldn’t come, and frankly I don’t understand why we are doing the 100/90 either.
Please explain what I am missing

What you have written is not as I explain in example 5 and I do suggest that you watch the lecture again.

For every 100 hours paid, they will be idle for 10 hours and will therefore work for 90 hours.
Putting it the other way round, for every 90 hours worked they will need to pay for 100 hours.

Therefore, if they need to work for 1.5 hours, they will need to pay for 100/90 x 1.5 hours.

That is the same as I do in the example, except that the idle time is 5% and therefore we multiply the hours worked by 100/95 to arrive at the hours paid.

hello sir
as you said in the lectures it is about understanding not following the rules, i seem to be confused with question 3 though, to find the sales volume variance do we compare the actual sales at standard profit pu/contribution pu and budgeted sales at standard profit pu/contribution pu

why are we using standard mix for actual total giving $148500 instead of actual sales at standard contribution giving $156000 for q3
in the lectures we had a similar example ie example 4 were we were calculating the sales volume variance and i followed the we did it but i`m getting a wrong answer. is it because we cant just follow a formula/rules? i really don`t understand sir

I am a bit puzzled by your questions, because question 3 is asking for the sales quantity variance (not the volume variance), and question 4 is asking for the sales mix variance (not the volume variance).

Q2: I think For actual unit ,Labour hour should take (1.5/.90)*20000=33333.33
They actually paid hour of =38000
Variance =4666.67(a)*12
please explain..is my understanding right or wrong?

Labour efficiency variances measures the relationship between the time taken to produce the actual unit or level of production or activity and the standard , the varience in unit is multiply at the standard rate in $.
In this case.
20000 unit should takes 30000hrs (1.5hrs*20000units).
But did takes 35000hrs (38000-3000)
Therefore variance in units is 5000hrs adv.
In dollars $ 75000 adv (I.e 5000hrs*$15)

Whoop, until I have finished my quiz then the solution said that the standard rate is based on actual and it didn’t makes an adjustment for idle time for we were required to do ourself.
Therefore it should be.
$75000*(100/90)= $83333.

Why is the derivation of the ‘derived actual rate of pay’ 15 * 100/90 rather than 15 * 110/100?

The object takes 1.5 hours to make BUT the employees are taking 1.5 * 1.1 hrs to complete. The idle time is not implied within those 1.5 hours as that is stated as the duration of production (refer to the word ‘should’).

Sir where do I have to go to get answers to this one particular question. I wrote open tuition on Facebook i was told I need to speak on the forum so that the whole community can benefit. I did that. And posted my question on this link below. Under the topic my question relates. Risk and uncertainty.

I got no response. I posted other question subsequently which was answered but not this particular one. I felt the lecturer did not see my question but since I was getting a response to my other question posted here I decided to repost my initial query her hoping I get some clarification.

I tried but unable to work my way around the ask the tutor forum. However thank you for time and patience with the help given. I have work all the f5 test questions three times at different time periods to ensure I remember what I understand and I’m fully clear on your guidance and help given through the lecture notes and test question.

Sir, I work question 2 on variance analysis and im unable to solve one thing.

base on your videos there the break down of a variance should add back to the overall variance and in this situation I cant seem to get it

please see my working and tell me what am I doing wrong.

The example in your video on idle time variance is exactly the same as this eg. And following your guidance the answer im getting is below

10% idle time means the company is paying more than 1.5 hour to produce one unit.

Therefore 100/90*1.5 = 1.67 hours for one unit @ a cost of $15 per hr.

Therefore labor cost per unit = 1.67*15 = $25

Labour cost per hr worked = 25*1.5 = 16.7

Overall labor variance is:

20000 units cost (@25) = 500,000

But costed 520000

———————————————-

Variance of 20,000 (A)

1.Rate of pay variance

38000 hr should have costed (@15) = 570,000

But costed = 520,000

———————————————-

Variance of 50,000 (F)

2.Effeciency variance

20,000 units should have (@1.5 hr) 30,000

But took (38000-3000idle) = 35,000

———————————————-

Variance of 5,000 (A)

X the rate of pay ($16.67) = 83,333 (A)

3.Idle Time variance

Standard idle time (38000*10%) = 3800

Actual idle time = 3,000

———————————————-

Variance of 800 (A)

X the rate of pay ($16.67) = 13,336

Rate of pay variance – 50,000 (F)

Effeciency variance – 83,333 (A)

Idle Time variance – 13,336

Overall Variance = 46,669

The overall variance calculate above is 20000A but when I did the break down of the variances I cant seem to come back to 20,000A unless the 20000A is wrong.

Idle time is always ‘lost’ money, but is built into the costings. The idle time variance can therefore be either adverse or favourable (in this case favourable).

I am using Kaplan June 2018 exam version and it says Idle time variance is:
(Actual paid @ SR) – (Actual worked @ST)

So therefore if I use the Q2 example, I would get an Idle time Variance of (38000hrs paid – 35000hrs worked) * £16,67 = £50,000 A
I dont understand how and why you get £13,333 as the Idle time variance.

That ‘formula’ is only true when idle time has not been budgeted for (which is the case in Paper F2 variance questions).
When idle time has been budgeted for you need to compare the actual idle time with the budgeted idle time.

sir with regard to question2,it is asking the labour efficiency variance but the question solved above included idle time.i just want to know why the efficiency of labour is judged by ideal time.it is not making sense.

Labour efficiency variance is calculated from the hours actually worked – idle time is time when they are not working.
You need to watch my free lectures for an explanation.

sir in question2 i want to know that why you have done 15/90*100 it increases the value mean you have included ideal time pay on it..i am doing it like this 15/100*90 so value comes out is 90%.plz explain this why i am wrong.

Back to Q2: So the standard time already includes the idle time? The way I worked it out is:

1.5 hrs x100/90 = 1.66 hrs

I then took the actual hours less idle time x std rate = 35000 x €15 and then subtracted the standard hours (20000 units x 1.66 hrs) x std rate of €15.
I got a variance of €27000A

I have watched the lecture and first you found the hours paid for then you found the standard work rate…

But you have not found the standard work rate – that is $15 x 100/90

The efficiency variance is always the difference between the actual hours worked and the standard hours for the actual production, costed at the standard work rate.

The Q with $83,333 Adverse is only productive efficiency variance, not labour efficiency variance, which would be the sum of $83,333 AND labour excess idle time variance (which in this case would be 800 * $16.6 = $13,336 favourable). I used Kaplan as well, so I’d like to know your opinion on this Question.

83,333 is the labour efficiency variance. The excess idle time variance is separate and is not part of the 83,333!
(The excess idle time variance is ( (10% x 38,000) – 3,000) x $15 x 100/90 = $13,333 (favourable).)

I assume you mean question 2, in which case the question says that 10% of the time is idle.
Therefore 90% (or 0.9) of the time paid is actually worked.

I do suggest that you watch the free lectures on the chapter before attempting the practice questions.

thanks john.. it all made sense after i looked at the lecture. however i have another question, for the sales mix variance, i got the 7500. i know it is favorable, however in applying the ‘rule’ top minus bottom i am getting 7500A (sales at standard mix – actual sales 148500-15600= -7500A) what do you advise?

You should not learn it in terms of ‘rules’. You should think as to whether it is earning more or less and therefore will result in more or less profit. If less profit it is adverse, if more profit it is favourable.

Hi could you help me with the following question please:

A company produces units that should take 1.5 hours to make.The standard rate of pay is $15 an hour. Idle time is expected to be 10% of hours paid.
They actually produced 20,000 units. They pay $520,000 for 38,000 hours of which 3,000 are idle.

The budget idle time is of no relevance when calculating the efficiency variance. We compare the hours actually worked with the standard hours for the actual production.

emanwahied says

For Q2, to calculate the standard rate for hours worked, can we first calculate the standard cost per unit and divide that with the actual hours worked (like how you have explained in Example 5 of Lecture videos)?

If so, standard cost per unit would be

1.65hrs x $15/hr = $24.75

Therefore, the standard rate for hours worked would be $24.75/1.5hrs = $16.5

But when we do it $15 x 100/90, the same answer wouldn’t come, and frankly I don’t understand why we are doing the 100/90 either.

Please explain what I am missing

John Moffat says

What you have written is not as I explain in example 5 and I do suggest that you watch the lecture again.

For every 100 hours paid, they will be idle for 10 hours and will therefore work for 90 hours.

Putting it the other way round, for every 90 hours worked they will need to pay for 100 hours.

Therefore, if they need to work for 1.5 hours, they will need to pay for 100/90 x 1.5 hours.

That is the same as I do in the example, except that the idle time is 5% and therefore we multiply the hours worked by 100/95 to arrive at the hours paid.

P.MinSquare says

Hi, for Q3, why can’t I derive the answer by doing so :

( 15,000 units – 10,000 units ) x (($9+$12)/ 2) = $52,500

John Moffat says

Because the average contribution is not (9 + 12) / 2, because they are not selling an equal number of units.

gaie says

hello sir

as you said in the lectures it is about understanding not following the rules, i seem to be confused with question 3 though, to find the sales volume variance do we compare the actual sales at standard profit pu/contribution pu and budgeted sales at standard profit pu/contribution pu

gaie says

why are we using standard mix for actual total giving $148500 instead of actual sales at standard contribution giving $156000 for q3

in the lectures we had a similar example ie example 4 were we were calculating the sales volume variance and i followed the we did it but i`m getting a wrong answer. is it because we cant just follow a formula/rules? i really don`t understand sir

John Moffat says

I am a bit puzzled by your questions, because question 3 is asking for the sales quantity variance (not the volume variance), and question 4 is asking for the sales mix variance (not the volume variance).

gaie says

okay, thank you sir. I understand now, I was confusing sales quantity variance with sales volume variance. thank you so much for your continued help

John Moffat says

You are welcome 🙂

tapiwaz17 says

Good day sir

Please explain why the 30% contribution is included in the calculation for sales mix variance in question 4.

John Moffat says

Because the variances are always looking at the effect on the contribution!

Did you not watch the free lectures on this before attempting the test?

mahfuzana says

Q2: I think For actual unit ,Labour hour should take (1.5/.90)*20000=33333.33

They actually paid hour of =38000

Variance =4666.67(a)*12

please explain..is my understanding right or wrong?

lams3340 says

Labour efficiency variances measures the relationship between the time taken to produce the actual unit or level of production or activity and the standard , the varience in unit is multiply at the standard rate in $.

In this case.

20000 unit should takes 30000hrs (1.5hrs*20000units).

But did takes 35000hrs (38000-3000)

Therefore variance in units is 5000hrs adv.

In dollars $ 75000 adv (I.e 5000hrs*$15)

I guessed.

lams3340 says

Whoop, until I have finished my quiz then the solution said that the standard rate is based on actual and it didn’t makes an adjustment for idle time for we were required to do ourself.

Therefore it should be.

$75000*(100/90)= $83333.

brandonsacco says

Question 2:

Why is the derivation of the ‘derived actual rate of pay’ 15 * 100/90 rather than 15 * 110/100?

The object takes 1.5 hours to make BUT the employees are taking 1.5 * 1.1 hrs to complete. The idle time is not implied within those 1.5 hours as that is stated as the duration of production (refer to the word ‘should’).

Why am I wrong?

John Moffat says

The question specifically says that idle time is 10% of the hours paid.

For a full explanation you need to watch my free lectures on advanced idle time variances – I cannot type them all out here.

preetierc says

Sir I have a query that I desperately need helps with. There’s a question on minimax regret in the textbook.

Now base on the video u posted I understand that the table is a table of regrets

And following your teachings I was able to work out the regret table

However I don’t understand the last scenario

Why is the 105 under D is a positive

If I choose D with a loss of 20 over a profit of 85 isn’t that double loss

Shouldn’t the 105 be a negative or a total of losses

Please refer to tx book question and answer below

A company has three projects to select from

Projects

D. E. F

Scenarios

1. 100 80 60

2. 90 120 85

3. (20) 10 85

Answer

Pay off table

Projects

D. E. F

Scenarios

1. 0 20 40

2. 30 0 35

3. 105 75 0

John Moffat says

This has nothing to do with variance analysis!

You must ask this sort of question in the Ask the Tutor Forum and not as a comment on a lecture or test questions on variance analysis.

preetierc says

Sir where do I have to go to get answers to this one particular question. I wrote open tuition on Facebook i was told I need to speak on the forum so that the whole community can benefit. I did that. And posted my question on this link below. Under the topic my question relates. Risk and uncertainty.

https://opentuition.com/acca/f5/f5-chapter-10-questions/

I got no response. I posted other question subsequently which was answered but not this particular one. I felt the lecturer did not see my question but since I was getting a response to my other question posted here I decided to repost my initial query her hoping I get some clarification.

preetierc says

I tried but unable to work my way around the ask the tutor forum. However thank you for time and patience with the help given. I have work all the f5 test questions three times at different time periods to ensure I remember what I understand and I’m fully clear on your guidance and help given through the lecture notes and test question.

John Moffat says

There is a link to the forums in the red bar at the top of this page.

preetierc says

Sir, I work question 2 on variance analysis and im unable to solve one thing.

base on your videos there the break down of a variance should add back to the overall variance and in this situation I cant seem to get it

please see my working and tell me what am I doing wrong.

The example in your video on idle time variance is exactly the same as this eg. And following your guidance the answer im getting is below

10% idle time means the company is paying more than 1.5 hour to produce one unit.

Therefore 100/90*1.5 = 1.67 hours for one unit @ a cost of $15 per hr.

Therefore labor cost per unit = 1.67*15 = $25

Labour cost per hr worked = 25*1.5 = 16.7

Overall labor variance is:

20000 units cost (@25) = 500,000

But costed 520000

———————————————-

Variance of 20,000 (A)

1.Rate of pay variance

38000 hr should have costed (@15) = 570,000

But costed = 520,000

———————————————-

Variance of 50,000 (F)

2.Effeciency variance

20,000 units should have (@1.5 hr) 30,000

But took (38000-3000idle) = 35,000

———————————————-

Variance of 5,000 (A)

X the rate of pay ($16.67) = 83,333 (A)

3.Idle Time variance

Standard idle time (38000*10%) = 3800

Actual idle time = 3,000

———————————————-

Variance of 800 (A)

X the rate of pay ($16.67) = 13,336

Rate of pay variance – 50,000 (F)

Effeciency variance – 83,333 (A)

Idle Time variance – 13,336

Overall Variance = 46,669

The overall variance calculate above is 20000A but when I did the break down of the variances I cant seem to come back to 20,000A unless the 20000A is wrong.

Please help

John Moffat says

The idle time variance is favourable (they were idle for less time than expected).

Now the variances do add up: 50,000 – 83,333 + 13,333 = 20,000 (A)

preetierc says

Oh yes indeed. Thanks a lot.

preetierc says

So if there wasn’t a variance in idle time by definition idle time is alway adverse right?

John Moffat says

Idle time is always ‘lost’ money, but is built into the costings. The idle time variance can therefore be either adverse or favourable (in this case favourable).

opeyemiogunjimi says

Hi Sir,

I am using Kaplan June 2018 exam version and it says Idle time variance is:

(Actual paid @ SR) – (Actual worked @ST)

So therefore if I use the Q2 example, I would get an Idle time Variance of (38000hrs paid – 35000hrs worked) * £16,67 = £50,000 A

I dont understand how and why you get £13,333 as the Idle time variance.

PS: I have watched all you videos.

John Moffat says

That ‘formula’ is only true when idle time has not been budgeted for (which is the case in Paper F2 variance questions).

When idle time has been budgeted for you need to compare the actual idle time with the budgeted idle time.

stepstothebest says

I got all^^?????

raheelislam says

sir with regard to question2,it is asking the labour efficiency variance but the question solved above included idle time.i just want to know why the efficiency of labour is judged by ideal time.it is not making sense.

John Moffat says

Labour efficiency variance is calculated from the hours actually worked – idle time is time when they are not working.

You need to watch my free lectures for an explanation.

raheelislam says

sir in question2 i want to know that why you have done 15/90*100 it increases the value mean you have included ideal time pay on it..i am doing it like this 15/100*90 so value comes out is 90%.plz explain this why i am wrong.

John Moffat says

Tell me – have you watched the lectures on this?

It is not ideal time – it is idle time which does not mean the same thing.

Also, you say that you have taken 15/100*90 and that I have taken 15/100*90 and so I don’t understand the problem 🙂

aamir says

sir plzzzz tell me how u solved q3 and i dont understand logic of 7/10 and 3/10 .But my ans is 57000 fav.

John Moffat says

You have calculated the sales volume variance.

The sales quantity variance compares actual sales at standard mix with budget sales.

The standard mix is the mix in the budget – i.e. for 10,000 total sales, 7,000 were X (i.e. 7/10), and 3,000 were Y (i.e. 3/10)

cfelicepace says

Back to Q2: So the standard time already includes the idle time? The way I worked it out is:

1.5 hrs x100/90 = 1.66 hrs

I then took the actual hours less idle time x std rate = 35000 x €15 and then subtracted the standard hours (20000 units x 1.66 hrs) x std rate of €15.

I got a variance of €27000A

I have watched the lecture and first you found the hours paid for then you found the standard work rate…

What am I missing?

John Moffat says

But you have not found the standard work rate – that is $15 x 100/90

The efficiency variance is always the difference between the actual hours worked and the standard hours for the actual production, costed at the standard work rate.

cfelicepace says

thanks a lot

Ismail says

sir, why it is not 15 as std rate..i do not understand why it 15/.9

John Moffat says

Do in future say which of the 5 questions you are asking about!!!

$15 is the standard rate of pay, but there is idle time and so the cost per working hour is higher.

You need to watch the free lecture on advanced idle time variances.

ritaalbu says

Hi

The Q with $83,333 Adverse is only productive efficiency variance, not labour efficiency variance, which would be the sum of $83,333 AND labour excess idle time variance (which in this case would be 800 * $16.6 = $13,336 favourable). I used Kaplan as well, so I’d like to know your opinion on this Question.

Thanks in advance, I appreciate your time!

Rita

John Moffat says

83,333 is the labour efficiency variance. The excess idle time variance is separate and is not part of the 83,333!

(The excess idle time variance is ( (10% x 38,000) – 3,000) x $15 x 100/90 = $13,333 (favourable).)

Watching our free lectures on this will help you.

ksjulien says

hello John, I do not understand this:

This is costed at the labour rate for hours worked, which is 15/0.9 = $16.6666 per hour. where did the 0.9 come from?

thanks.

John Moffat says

I assume you mean question 2, in which case the question says that 10% of the time is idle.

Therefore 90% (or 0.9) of the time paid is actually worked.

I do suggest that you watch the free lectures on the chapter before attempting the practice questions.

ksjulien says

thanks john.. it all made sense after i looked at the lecture. however i have another question, for the sales mix variance, i got the 7500. i know it is favorable, however in applying the ‘rule’ top minus bottom i am getting 7500A (sales at standard mix – actual sales 148500-15600= -7500A) what do you advise?

John Moffat says

You should not learn it in terms of ‘rules’. You should think as to whether it is earning more or less and therefore will result in more or less profit. If less profit it is adverse, if more profit it is favourable.

alma says

hello sir can you please tell me how do i solve Q3?

i got 49500 (fav)

John Moffat says

I am sorry – the answer is 49,500 favourable.

It is a typing error and I will have it corrected.

Jess says

Hi could you help me with the following question please:

A company produces units that should take 1.5 hours to make.The standard rate of pay is $15 an hour. Idle time is expected to be 10% of hours paid.

They actually produced 20,000 units. They pay $520,000 for 38,000 hours of which 3,000 are idle.

what is the labour efficiency variance.

thanks!

John Moffat says

Have you watched our free lectures on advanced idle time variances?

They should work 20,000 x 1.5 hours = 30,000 hours

The actually worked 38,000 – 3,000 = 35,000 hours.

So they are inefficient by 5,000 hours.

This is costed at the labour rate for hours worked, which is 15/0.9 = $16.6666 per hour.

So the variance is 5,000 x $16.6666 = $83,333 adverse

gonko says

Why are we not comparing 27000 (30000-10% expected idle time) with the 35k hours.

Or do we ignore the budgeted idle time in calculations like this?

Thanks.

John Moffat says

The budget idle time is of no relevance when calculating the efficiency variance. We compare the hours actually worked with the standard hours for the actual production.

chia says

How to get the answer? i had try many times but my answer is C

John Moffat says

Try a different answer – it will tell you when your answer is correct!!!

If you have a problem then say which question and then I will try and help you!