Explanation is clear in question 11.But I have a question why we didn`t use 30% tax rate.
Such as:
3*(1-0.3) = 2.10 then 2.10*3.791 = 7.9611
114.84*0.621 = 70.79
The question asks for the market value. The market value is determined by the investors – it is the present value of the future receipts discounted at the investors required return.
Investors are not affected by company tax – the receive the full interest.
The tax rate is only relevant when calculating the cost of debt to the company.
This is something that the examiner often asks, and I do suggest that you watch my free lectures. They are a complete free course for Paper F9 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
For Question # 11,
We have the formula for conversion premium as = MV of each $100 loan note – Current conversion value of $100 loan note.
In this question, the market value we calculated is $83. The current conversion value I calculated is $90 (25 shares * 3.6 current MV)
So the conversion premium of each $100 convertible loan note = MV of $83 – Current conversion value of $90
I am getting the conversion premium of = $ -7
I have the following questions:
1. Is it correct in negative?
2. Most often, it is expressed on a per share basis = -7/25 = $-0.29?
3. Most often, it is also expressed as a % of MV = -7/83 = $-0.088?
This question does not ask for the conversion premium.
Usually it will be a premium – the figures in this question are unusual.
It is certainly not expressed on a per share basis – it is expressed on a loan note basis.
It is not usually expressed as a percentage.
Dear John
Explanation is clear in question 11.But I have a question why we didn`t use 30% tax rate.
Such as:
3*(1-0.3) = 2.10 then 2.10*3.791 = 7.9611
114.84*0.621 = 70.79
MV 78.75
The question asks for the market value. The market value is determined by the investors – it is the present value of the future receipts discounted at the investors required return.
Investors are not affected by company tax – the receive the full interest.
The tax rate is only relevant when calculating the cost of debt to the company.
This is something that the examiner often asks, and I do suggest that you watch my free lectures. They are a complete free course for Paper F9 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
Thanks for your kind reply.
You are welcome 🙂
Dear sir,
For Question # 11,
We have the formula for conversion premium as = MV of each $100 loan note – Current conversion value of $100 loan note.
In this question, the market value we calculated is $83. The current conversion value I calculated is $90 (25 shares * 3.6 current MV)
So the conversion premium of each $100 convertible loan note = MV of $83 – Current conversion value of $90
I am getting the conversion premium of = $ -7
I have the following questions:
1. Is it correct in negative?
2. Most often, it is expressed on a per share basis = -7/25 = $-0.29?
3. Most often, it is also expressed as a % of MV = -7/83 = $-0.088?
Thanks 🙂
This question does not ask for the conversion premium.
Usually it will be a premium – the figures in this question are unusual.
It is certainly not expressed on a per share basis – it is expressed on a loan note basis.
It is not usually expressed as a percentage.