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AFM

Strategy formulation (Part 2) - ACCA (AFM) lectures

VIVA Subject Guide
YouTube video

21 Comments

  1. Santhosh
    Conceptual Clarification:

    How is Shareholder's funds + Long term Debt = Average Net assets?

    Isn't Net assets essentially Equity or Shareholder's funds (Total Assets - Total Liabilities)?

    Shouldn't Shareholder's Funds + Long term Debt = Long term Capital?
  2. Aditya
    Wonderful lecture!
  3. Hilam
    Thank you alot for the wonderful lecture
  4. Hoi
    Thanks for the lecture first. May I confirm that even though we calculated 5 ratios to analyze the company's performance to achieve its objective, should we need to provide an opinion or conclusion on whether the company has achieved or not achieved its target? and if so, should we need to provide an assumption about why they achieve/do not achieve?
    for example, we can see Repse has a significant decrease in long-term debt and issued new shares in year 3. Could I say Repse has not achieved its objective because the profit margin has decreased from yr1 (19.87%) to yr3 (17.20%). Besides, it has repaid a lot of debt in year 3 and therefore may not have adequate financing resources during that period. In this regard, it reasonably assumed that they issued new shares in year 3 as additional financing resources. This also diluted the market value of shares.
    Would above answers get points in the exam or it is unnecessary?
  5. SvetlanaSupporter
    Thank you sir for yet another great lecture!
  6. Javokhir
    Thanks for the great lecture, and I do have one question though, as there was a right issue, should not we have to find restated EPS, as right issue includes bonus element?
  7. njweng27
    Thank you sir, very interesting lectures, I'm beginning to love this paper more
  8. Hoi Ying
    Thanks for the lecture. In the answer, I saw the market capitalisation are 86.67 and 143.4 in Year 1 and Year 4 respectively. May I ask how to calculate it? Thanks :))
  9. CJS
    MV of share x Number of shares in issue
  10. John MoffatTutor
    Correct :-)
  11. fatimali
    Mr. John, at 3:07 isn't the increase in turnover 34.7%?
  12. Caoimhe
    I thought the same also?
  13. John MoffatTutor
    Yes, it is 34.7%. I made a mistake :-(
  14. Betty
    Dear John. For the video at 4:10, the calculation for PBIT, does it should be (11,300-8,700)/8,700, instead of using the number from PAIT (7,550-5,100)/5,100?
  15. Betty
    Oh, I figured it out that Mr. John corrected it. Never mind!
  16. John MoffatTutor
    I am pleased that you figured it out :-)
  17. Denis G.
    Hi John! Thx for the resource and for the particular lecture.
    @11:10 on the timeline you state that Net assets=Captital Employed (in particular Shareholders funds + long term borrowings). Aren't Net assets=Total assets less total liabilities? I'm a bit confused. Thx.
  18. gumeden
    Thank you very much for this lecture. Just a question please. We know that maximising shareholders wealth is through increasing share price. And also that profits are different from wealth. Would we not loose marks through commenting on PBIT and PAT
  19. IhmantSupporter
    Dear John, at 2:47, I think the increase is +34.7%, or is it really 11.9%? BR,I.
  20. Denis G.
    Agree that 34.7%. Thx for noting. Probably the John was a bit nervous. The mistake is rather arithmetic. The formula is correct.
  21. Donald
    Thanks for the lecture, I need to ask if is it wrong to calculate leverage (Total assets/Equity) instead of gearing(long term debt/equity) for exam purpose? On the above example leverage would be 1,5 while gearing 50% (from leverage we can get 50% easily) but it's easy to compare the company based on leverage as well.

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