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November 18, 2020 at 4:49 pm
Quick question about the spot rates. In this case we owe a supplier $500k so we are going to sell £ to buy $.
On the 20.06 I considered the relevant rate to be 1.4821 and on the 12,09 the relevant rate would be 1.4791.
When calculating the future value I used the above mentioned rates and I did not calculate the average.
20-Jun 12-Sep 30-Sep
spot 1.4821 1.4791 x
future 1.4840 1.4794 x
basis 0.0019 0.0003 0
Can it be considered correct in an exam scenario or I am going to lose marks?
Thanks, all the lecture was really helpful.
John Moffat says
November 19, 2020 at 12:40 pm
That would be fine in the exam 🙂
November 22, 2019 at 6:49 pm
Hello John, the point you mentioned at 27:19 ”that if the futures rate is lower than the spot today, then it will be lower than spot in future as well” is it just an assumption or it’s practically this way? You’re always a great help, Many thanks 🙂
November 23, 2019 at 10:40 am
It is an assumption, but is something that would almost always be the case in real life as well.
November 25, 2019 at 6:34 am
Thank you, one more question that if the spot rate at the transaction date is not given, how will we calculate closing futures price. Can we use forward rate quoted at the transaction date as expected spot? Also many times examiner calculates the basis as the difference between two futures prices quoted, rather than difference between current spot and futures rate (Dec 2018 Q2), why is that so and in what case this approach will be required in exam? Thank you for your support 🙂
November 25, 2019 at 7:37 am
When we do not know the spot rate at the date of the transaction we use the lock-in rate instead. There is more than one way of arriving at the lock-in rate, but the method I explain in the lecture is strictly the correct way.
November 26, 2019 at 1:38 pm
Understood, thankyou 🙂
November 26, 2019 at 4:28 pm
You are welcome 🙂
November 19, 2019 at 3:23 pm
Hello sir, in the final step on 12th Sept, while converting 500,000$ to pounds we used the rate at 1.4791. And in the next step we are using 1.4812 to convert the profits earned from dollars to pounds.
My question is, should we not use the same rate (which is 1.4791) to convert the profits into pounds. Please clarify me.
November 19, 2019 at 3:35 pm
For the $500,000 we are buying $’s and therefore use 1.4791.
For the profit on the futures, we will be selling $’s and therefore use 1.4812.
(However, you could in fact use the $ profit to make part of the $ payment, and that would be effectively the same as converting the profit at 1.4791)
November 19, 2019 at 6:15 pm
Thank you so much for the clarification sir.
August 24, 2019 at 11:19 pm
Hello Sir, is there a reason why august was missed out in arriving at the basis period. I am a bit confused, please help clarify.
August 24, 2019 at 11:33 pm
August 25, 2019 at 10:09 am
I am pleased you sorted it out 🙂
May 27, 2019 at 5:14 pm
Just like in example 9 we were selling the first currency which is the us dollar so we used the higher rate both at the time of converting at spot rate which was 1.5190 and also on converting the gain on futures we used this higher rate.
May 27, 2019 at 5:07 pm
Sir,t thanks for the lectures . I wanted to ask that in example 11 you have used the higher spot rate on Sept 12 to convert the gain on futures whereas in this example we we’re actually buying usd to pay the supplier and as the dollar is the first currency and we’re buying it so shouldn’t we take the lower rate 1.4791 to convert the gain on futures???. since this is also the rate at which converted the transaction at spot rate $500000÷ 1.4791
May 5, 2019 at 9:21 am
Hi John , In the last bit of example 11, while converting the gain to pounds why have we used the selling rate of 1.4812 . We did use 1.4791 as the rate for converting $500000 on 12th sep so shouldn’t the same rate be used for the gain calculation ?
May 5, 2019 at 12:46 pm
When converting the $500,000 we are buying dollars. When converting the gain we are selling dollars (because the gain is calculated in dollars).
(Out of interest, you could use some of the dollar gain to make part of the dollar payment, which then would effectively convert it at 1.4812)
February 17, 2019 at 11:39 am
Hello, Sir. Since we’re taking the days from 20th June to 31st September, shouldn’t the days be 10 for June, 31 for July, 31 for August and 30 for September? Which would be 10+31+31+30 that is 102 days? Do correct me if i’m missing something. Thanks a tonne.
February 17, 2019 at 11:43 am
Oh Sorry, my doubt just got cleared.
January 28, 2019 at 7:12 am
For example 11 (say in the real exam scenario), will I score any extra marks if I do the following format?
– Sell Pound Futures – Price 1.4840 – End September 2004 – Tick value $6.25 – No of contract: 5 [workings below ($500,000 / 1.4840) / GBP 62500]
In case of indicating “Sell Pound Future” is to remind myself for Sell high 1.4840, and buy back low 1.4799 for profit, make sure my tireness doesn’t cause me to do the opposite (Loss) for a Buy Pound scenario
January 28, 2019 at 7:21 am
December 2, 2018 at 11:20 am
Hi Sir ,
Can basis risk be negative ? Here in the above example , spot price is greater than future price and hence basis is positive . In few exam questions future price is higher than spot price , so that means basis will be negative . Is this logic applicable to all questions regardless or receipt or payment ?
December 2, 2018 at 5:18 pm
Yes – although I don’t really like to think of it as being negative even though arithmetically I suppose it is. But more importantly the futures price can be higher or lower than the spot rate and therefore it will always be higher or lower as the difference approaches towards zero.
October 24, 2018 at 4:04 pm
Good day. Thanks for the lecture. On the e.g. 11. I do not understand why you are deducting the 1.4799 from 1.4840 to calculate the gain on the futures. In the last 2 previous examples we deducted the sell was the closing future price and the buy the future price now.
October 25, 2018 at 8:47 am
In example 9, the underlying transaction is selling $’s because they are receiving $’s. In example 11 the underlying transaction is buying $’s because they are paying $’s.
We buy or sell futures at the current price depending on whether the underlying transaction involves buying or selling the currency. I do explain this, and also read again note 1 below example 9 in the lecture notes.
May 8, 2019 at 4:37 pm
Hello. Please clearify the note 1 to the example 9: why have we to buy futures when we buy currency? I guess we act on the “contraversial” and in the following examples there are written “buy” futures when we sell the currency and “sell” wnen we buy currency.
And one more question: there is no question 13 in the answers.
(Thank you, the lectures and notes are very helpfull)
May 8, 2019 at 4:41 pm
We buy futures when the transaction involves buying the currency in which the futures are quoted (the currency in which the contract size is quoted). We sell futures when the transaction involves selling the currency in which the futures are quoted. This is what happens in all of the examples.
There is no printed answer to example 13, but I explain the free lectures.
May 9, 2019 at 11:17 am
It will be clear to give the last words in the note to the ex.9: “The contract currency is the currency in which the FUTURS contract is quoted”.
I really spend several days to get what was meant there.
May 9, 2019 at 3:10 pm
I am not changing the notes, because I make this clear in the lecture (and the notes should not be used on their own – it is in the lectures that I explain and expand on the notes).
September 3, 2018 at 9:15 pm
I do find it enjoyable watching your lectures:) thank you for doing what you have been doing. It is much appreciated.
September 4, 2018 at 8:10 am
Thank you for your comment 🙂
August 13, 2018 at 7:47 pm
August 12, 2018 at 7:27 pm
Hi Mr Moffat, I may be wrong but from 1 July to 31 August should actually be 2 months? Therefore 0.0200 x 2/3 (rather than 1/3). Then from 31 Aug to 30 Sep will be 1/3. You made the point very clearly, I just want to make sure that this logic is correct. Thanks for the lectures!
August 13, 2018 at 5:11 am
1 July to 31 August is indeed 2 months. Therefore the basis will have fallen by 2 months out of 3, and the basis remaining will be for 1 month out of 3 i.e. 1/3 x 0.200.
The answer is correct 🙂
August 13, 2018 at 6:31 pm
Oh I see, that makes sense 🙂 Sorry I was a bit confused, now I see how you did it. Thanks so much!
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