Thank you, sir, for your lecture. It is well explained.

I do have a little question regarding the deposit.

If I get it right, you mentioned in the lecture the reason we do not need to put a deposit in year 1 is that there no limitation on time 2, so we don’t need to borrow.

Why no need to borrow leads to no deposit. Can’t I put a deposit just because I have more available money or I want to lower the risk?

They are certainly entitled to put money on deposit if they want to, but there would be no point given that the interest they would earn is less than the cost of borrowing.

Dear Sir Thanks for the explanation. I’m getting it Right till 0.973 but I’ve heard you say in the lecture 馃檨 the npv is 0.1 – 0.973) . So maybe I can’t really catch that can you please tell how 0.1 is really the investment of po ??

Thanks for the reply. But why have you shown the inflow of 1.07 in brackets meaning negative. The inflow should be positive right? And then divided by 1.1- ??

I have simply used brackets to show I am multiplying, not because it is negative!!!

Dividing by 1.1 is the same as multiplying by 0.909 (that is how discount factors are calculated, as you should remember from Papers MA (was F2) and FM (was F9) !!!)

What I wrote before is perfectly correct! Po x 1.07 / 1.1 = 0.973 Po Subtract the investment of Po and the NPV is – 0.027Po

I don’t really understand the objective of your working on Year 0 and 1.

I suppose Year 0 there is only $14,000 available cash flow. To invest I would choose Project B (8,000) and A (5,000) because of the NPV ranking, this will left me $1000 (14k – 8k – 5k) to be brought forward to Year 1 with another cash available of $5,000, which is $6000 (5k + 1k) in total, then I will be able to go for Project C. Am i missing something? Thanks

Firstly, you say B is better than A because of the NPV ranking. B is better but I assume you mean because of the NPV per $ invested ranking (as per single period capital rationing from Paper FM (was F9).

Secondly, you say that you then have 6,000 available to invest in C at time 1. But C needs an investment of 6,000 at time 0 – nothing in the question says that C can be delayed.

Thirdly, even if C could be delayed, what about the fact that A gives a higher NPV per $ than A. Why do you prefer to invest in C rather than in A?

There is no requirement to invest all 14,000 – the money is being borrowed and there is only any point in investing it if the return covers the cost of borrowing.

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confideans says

could you please elaborate on the meaning of ” infinitely divisible”? Thank you.

confideans says

and plus is it ok with 0<=P(0)<=14000 for precision?

John Moffat says

For the first, it means you can do any fraction of a project.

For the second, it is OK.

megan95 says

Thank you, sir, for your lecture. It is well explained.

I do have a little question regarding the deposit.

If I get it right, you mentioned in the lecture the reason we do not need to put a deposit in year 1 is that there no limitation on time 2, so we don’t need to borrow.

Why no need to borrow leads to no deposit. Can’t I put a deposit just because I have more available money or I want to lower the risk?

opentuition_team says

They are certainly entitled to put money on deposit if they want to, but there would be no point given that the interest they would earn is less than the cost of borrowing.

chimmm says

Dear Sir

Thanks for the explanation. I’m getting it Right till 0.973 but I’ve heard you say in the lecture 馃檨 the npv is 0.1 – 0.973) .

So maybe I can’t really catch that can you please tell how 0.1 is really the investment of po ??

John Moffat says

I did not say that in the lecture.

The PV of the inflow is 0.973Po

The time 0 outlay is Po

Therefore the NPV = 0.973Po – Po = – 0.027Po

chimmm says

Sir ,

Can you please explain how did you get the npv of po (0.027) ??

chimmm says

In the multi period capital rationing .

John Moffat says

But I actually show the workings for this in the lecture!!!!

There is an outflow of Po at time 0, and an inflow of Po(1.07) in 1 years time.

So the NPV is Po(1.07)/1.1 – Po = – 0.027

chimmm says

Thanks for the reply. But why have you shown the inflow of 1.07 in brackets meaning negative. The inflow should be positive right? And then divided by 1.1- ??

chimmm says

Isn’t it should be like this :

Inflow of 1.07 脳 0.909 (10% disc factor) and the ans will be 0.973.

John Moffat says

I have simply used brackets to show I am multiplying, not because it is negative!!!

Dividing by 1.1 is the same as multiplying by 0.909 (that is how discount factors are calculated, as you should remember from Papers MA (was F2) and FM (was F9) !!!)

What I wrote before is perfectly correct!

Po x 1.07 / 1.1 = 0.973 Po

Subtract the investment of Po and the NPV is – 0.027Po

zhixiang85 says

Hi John,

I don’t really understand the objective of your working on Year 0 and 1.

I suppose Year 0 there is only $14,000 available cash flow. To invest I would choose Project B (8,000) and A (5,000) because of the NPV ranking, this will left me $1000 (14k – 8k – 5k) to be brought forward to Year 1 with another cash available of $5,000, which is $6000 (5k + 1k) in total, then I will be able to go for Project C. Am i missing something? Thanks

John Moffat says

You are missing a few things.

Firstly, you say B is better than A because of the NPV ranking. B is better but I assume you mean because of the NPV per $ invested ranking (as per single period capital rationing from Paper FM (was F9).

Secondly, you say that you then have 6,000 available to invest in C at time 1. But C needs an investment of 6,000 at time 0 – nothing in the question says that C can be delayed.

Thirdly, even if C could be delayed, what about the fact that A gives a higher NPV per $ than A. Why do you prefer to invest in C rather than in A?

sid84 says

here the 1st equation <=14000 ..where we have 14000 to invest

John Moffat says

Are you asking a question?

sid84 says

yes … all three projects are giving positive npv but here the 1st equation <=14000 ..where we have $14000 to invest ?? why <= 14000 ?

John Moffat says

There is no requirement to invest all 14,000 – the money is being borrowed and there is only any point in investing it if the return covers the cost of borrowing.