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August 29, 2019 at 9:22 am
PV of Investment Phase was calculated as 2000, then why did you take it in denominator while calculating MIRR?
September 27, 2019 at 2:22 pm
You are right when you say 2000 is the PV of the Investment Phase. Now if you see the formula of MIRR in the notes or as Sir wrote down on the board in the lecture, 2000 will come in denominator only.
We are dividing PV of return phase (which is 2257) by PV of investment Phase (which is 2000).
Hope I was able to explain.
John Moffat says
September 27, 2019 at 3:07 pm
Thank you Shanky95 🙂
July 24, 2019 at 7:39 pm
please Sir what does the Internal rate of return (IRR) actually calculate And how do you choose if to go ahead with a project or not when using IRR?
July 25, 2019 at 9:57 am
By definition, the IRR is the rate of interest at which the NPV of the project is zero.
It is rarely used in exams to appraise projects – we usually calculate the NPV. However if the IRR is more than the cost of capital then the NPV will be positive and we will accept the project. If the IRR is less than the cost of capital then the NPV will be negative and we will reject the project. (For more, watch the Paper MA and FM lectures on the IRR, because this is revision of MA and FM).
However there are problems using the IRR (which is why it is rarely asked for in the exam). MIRR is introduced in Paper AFM because it does in a sense deal with the problems, as I explain in the lecture.
August 22, 2018 at 3:13 pm
Hello, when comparing two projects, agreed we consider the IRR, then we consider how long the return is, in the example, one project is 10% over 15 years while the other is 12% over 2 years, before considering the re-investment of the receipts at IRR, should we not also consider the advantage of the pay back period of each of the projects. Specifically in a scenario which details capital rationing.
August 23, 2018 at 5:40 am
In practice, companies would look at a range of measures and then form an overall judgement. In the exam, if choosing between projects we us the NPV criteria. IRR’s are irrelevant in the exam (apart from discussion) unless you are specifically asked to calculate them, and, of course, if you are asked to calculate them then you would probably be asked to calculate the MIRR as well (although both IRR and MIRR are not asked often). Whether or not it is capital rationing makes no difference to my last paragraph 🙂
August 23, 2018 at 10:08 am
August 23, 2018 at 4:44 pm
You are welcome 🙂
August 9, 2018 at 12:29 am
Thanks very much. This very clear to me now.
But please is that formula different from this one Terminal Value of Returns(Future Value)/PV of Investment^1/n -1
Will both turn out the same answer and what is the terminal value?
August 9, 2018 at 7:01 am
Both formula give the same result, but since the formula given on the formula sheet is the one that I work through in the lecture, it is rather silly to use the other one!
The terminal value is the value at the end of the project and is arrived at by compounding (i.e. adding on the interest) as opposed to the present value, which is arrived at by discounting (i.e. removing the interest)). Terminal values are not asked in Paper AFM, but if they interest you then watch the Paper F2 lectures on interest, where they are explained – they can be asked in Paper F2.
August 10, 2018 at 12:27 am
Thank you very much. Well explained!
August 10, 2018 at 6:11 am
Thank you for your comment 🙂
July 26, 2018 at 11:31 am
Why is the working capital not included in the investment phase?
July 26, 2018 at 4:30 pm
It is included!! The 2,000,000 includes the 200,000 working capital. Have you watched the previous lecture as well?
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