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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Related parties
Hi
In a scenario where a potential related party bought 5% shares of the equity shares of the reporting entity. My question is, even if she acquired 20% (and achieve significant influence), why would that have to be disclosed as a related party transaction in the first place if the transaction is not with the reporting entity but with group shareholders?
Thanks in advance!
Purchase of shares in the company probably not RPT.
Once she has 20%, transactions with the company might well be RPT>
IAS 24 = judgement call. Examiner will be tolerant.
🙂