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Cum Div

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Cum Div

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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    Posts
  • July 5, 2023 at 2:11 pm #687672
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 301
    • Replies: 352
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello Mr John Q 314  MAT CO Kapla F9Exam Kit 2022-2023

    For the following question in the model answer they use the cum dividend i.e the dividend about to be paid in the dividend growth model as

    Value per share =   5.0 x 1.0684
    ——————— =72.6c or $0.726 
    0.142 ? 0.0684

    But as per the formula and also in your lectures you said it should be the dividend which has been paid

    So is it okay to use the cum div in the dividend growth formula or we must use the last paid dividend which is 4.7 cents according to the information given??

    Also it was used in finding the growth rate in formula
    Annual dividend growth (g) = (current dividend/dividend from n years ago)1/n – 1  g = (5.0/4.1)1/3 – 1 = 0.0684 

    is that ok

    it is a little bit confusing ,

    Thanks,

    —————————————

    Q
    Required:  (a)  Calculate the total equity value of MAT Co using the dividend growth model. ?     (6 marks)  (b)  Comment on the relevance of the total equity value calculated when compared to  the total market value of the equity of the company. ?  (5 marks)  (c)  Explain the factors the directors of MAT Co should take into account when  considering how to raise additional finance. ? 

    Answer

    To calculate the cost of equity (re) using CAPM, we have the formula (from the sheet)  E(r)j  =  Rf + ?j (E(rm) – Rf)  re = 5% + (1.15 × 8%) = 14.2%  Annual dividend growth (g) = (current dividend/dividend from n years ago)1/n – 1  g = (5.0/4.1)1/3 – 1 = 0.0684 

    Value per share =   5.0 x 1.0684
      = 72.6c or $0.726  0.142 ? 0.0684 Total number of shares = $40m ÷ $0.25 = 160 million  Total equity value (ex div) – 160m × $0.726 = $116.16m 

    July 5, 2023 at 6:14 pm #687680
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54700
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Do in the formula is the current dividend and for this it is not relevant whether or not the current dividend has yet been paid. (And so Do(1+g) is the dividend in 1 years time).

    The formula gives the ex div market value. The only relevance of cum div and ex div is that the cum div value is the ex div value plus the dividend about to be paid (although we always assume market values to be ex div unless told otherwise,

    I don’t actually say any different in my lectures 🙂

    July 5, 2023 at 7:30 pm #687685
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 301
    • Replies: 352
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Thanks a lot for clarification.

    July 6, 2023 at 7:57 am #687697
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54700
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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