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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Free cash flow
Hie, MY question is how did they calculate production costs. Where did they get the 2.5
Part of the notes to the question reads…
It is expected that the factory
will be able to produce and sell 80,000 window units per year although, in
the first year, because of the need to ‘run in’ the machinery and its new
workforce, output is only expected to be 50,000 window units. Each
window is likely to be sold for €750, a price that represents a 150% markup
on cash production costs.
The French factory would be set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary
Answer
Workings
(W1) €m Sales revenues
50,000 × 750 (1.06) = 39.75 Year 1
80,000 × 750 (1.06)2 = 67.42 Year 2
80,000 × 750 (1.06)3 = 71.46 Year 3
80,000 × 750 (1.06)4 = 75.75 Year 4
80,000 × 750 (1.06)5 = 80.29 Year 5
(W2) €m Production costs
39.75 ÷ 2.5 = 15.9 Year 1
67.42 ÷ 2.5 = 26.97 Year 2
71.46 ÷ 2.5 = 28.58 Year 3
75.75 ÷ 2.5 = 30.30 Year 4
80.29 ÷ 2.5 = 32.12 Year 5
The marke-up is is 150% of the production costs. Therefore for every 100 cost, the selling price is 100 + 150 = 250. So for every 250 selling price the production cost is 100.
So the cost is 100/250 x the revenue (which is the same as writing revenue divided by 2.5)
Thank you for the clarification Mr John
You are welcome 🙂
