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M&M theorem 2 propostion 1(thx for helping)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › M&M theorem 2 propostion 1(thx for helping)

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 6, 2022 at 3:39 am #670738
    ROHMOOHYUN
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Hello sir. I’m studying along with your materials to pass the AFM paper in this Dec.

    When ungearing equity beta, we take into consideration the positive effect of tax deductible so the formula is Ve+Vd(1-T)/Ve * Ba = Be.
    This is what I’ve understood so far. The thing I want to ask is if, M&M’s theorems are based on the tax deductible interest payment, then I think where ‘(1-T)’ should apply is PV of interest payment, not whole market value of debt. because obviously there is principal amount of debt which is not tax-deductible. Therefore I’m having a hard time to why this ungearing formula applies tax rate to Vd, but not to Kd or interest payment.. Could you kindly shed some light on this? Thank you in advance.

    November 6, 2022 at 8:46 am #670752
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54686
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The MV of debt is the PV of the full interest payments (before tax) discounted at the investors required rate of return.

    The company saves tax on the interest payments, and since the saving is T multiplied by the interest, then PV of the saving must be T multiplied by the PV of the full interest payments i.e. T. multiplied by the MV of the debt.

    November 6, 2022 at 12:09 pm #670773
    ROHMOOHYUN
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    thx for reply.
    However, referring to your AFM revision lecture question 1, appendix 2.1, Fugae co’s MVd is 388.1 whereas PV of series of all interest payment is;
    $5.4 interest discounted at 4.8%, PV of perpetuity is $ 112.5
    $ 112.5 per bond * 3.8M bonds = $ 427.5M PV of all interest payment.

    How come they are different in numbers? Is my calculation wrong?

    November 6, 2022 at 2:10 pm #670777
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54686
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    M&M assume that debt is irredeemable whereas in Fugae it is redeemable in 4 years time.
    When it is redeemable, the amount payable on redemption distorts it because it is not tax allowable.

    November 7, 2022 at 9:13 am #670827
    ROHMOOHYUN
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    So do you mean that we anyway move on with the given assumption regardless of error in the figure of MVd although it might significantly affect the result of say, ungearing fugae co.?
    Since ungearing equation includes MVd(1-T) as a demoninator.

    November 7, 2022 at 9:28 am #670832
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54686
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes. I know it is strange but one of the assumptions of all M&M theory is that debt is irredeemable. In practice that is not the case, but we still use the M&M formulae to estimate the effect of changes in gearing.

    November 7, 2022 at 11:50 am #670837
    ROHMOOHYUN
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Thanks John. Now everything about it clears up. I really appreciate your support. Have a nice day ahead.

    November 8, 2022 at 7:47 am #670959
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54686
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome, and you have a nice day also 🙂

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  • The topic ‘M&M theorem 2 propostion 1(thx for helping)’ is closed to new replies.

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