Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Q.23_BPP_Capital allowance
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
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- August 22, 2021 at 7:42 pm #632573
Dear sir,
There is a straight-line basis for the Capital allowances for $3m plant and machinery and 0.4m scrap value.
(3-0.4)/4=$0.65m.However there is a tutorial note which is unclear:
“You could also have assumed that capital allowances were $0.75m in
the first 3 years and $0.35m in the final year. You would gain full credit for this.”What does this note mean?
Thanks
August 23, 2021 at 6:26 am #632589The answer has calculated the tax allowable depreciation in the same way as we calculate financial accounting straight-line depreciation i.e. the scrap proceeds have been subtracted.
As you should remember from Paper FM, this is strictly wrong and the tax allowable depreciation should be based just on the initial cost and so should be 3/4 = 0.75 per year until the final year. In the final year there is the balancing allowance of 0.35 (the difference between the scrap proceeds and the tax written down value).
Although strictly it is the second figures that are correct, the examiner allowed either.
August 23, 2021 at 6:41 am #632593Thank you very much!
August 23, 2021 at 4:31 pm #632635You are welcome 🙂
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