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Handfood, employee benefit sd2020

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Handfood, employee benefit sd2020

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 19, 2021 at 8:17 am #632032
    Mary-May
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Employee benefit
    On 1 January 20X2, Handfood Co introduced an additional benefit to encourage employees to remain in its employment for at least five years. Handfood Co has promised its employees a lump-sum benefit, payable on 1 January 20X7, which is equal to 1% of their salary at 31 December 20X6, provided they remain employed until that date.

    The current salaries of employees on 1 January 20X2 are $1·1 million per annum. The directors of Handfood Co have
    used the following assumptions:
    – Salaries for year ended 31 December 20X2 will remain at $1·1 million.
    – Salaries should increase by 3% each year from 1 January 20X3.
    – There is a 75% probability that all employees will still be employed by Handfood Co at 31 December 20X6.
    The discount rate is 5% per year.
    Handfood Co recognises actuarial gains and losses in other comprehensive income. Interest is recognised by Handfood Co on an annual basis. Handfood Co uses the projected unit credit method to measure its defined benefit obligation which means that the current service cost is the increase in the present value of the future defined benefit liabilities. The benefit will be payable from the balance on Handfood Co’s business bank account at 1 January 20X7.
    Present value factors 5%
    Periods (years)
    4 0·823
    5 0·784

    required:
    Discuss the impact on the additional employee benefit for the year ended 31 December 20X3 if Handfood
    Co were to take into account the following changes in assumptions:
    – an increase in employees’ salaries above 3% per annum; and
    – a decrease in the probability of employees leaving the company.

    my question:
    In the answer, they say that the interest will not be affected but will stay the same at 7700*5%= 385 where 7700 is the service cost.

    how is that possible if the service cost will increase due to an increase in salaries and probability of employees leaving? isn’t that contradictory? Also, shouldn’t the interest be calculated on the benefit obligation itself rather than the current service cost?

    August 19, 2021 at 8:20 am #632035
    Mary-May
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Also, why are they saying that the actuarial loss will be recognized in the P&L as compared to the normal treatment of being recognized in OCI?

    August 20, 2021 at 7:36 am #632294
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3411
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Please:

    1. Don’t copy out whole questions.
    2. One question per thread.

    Re your second question – this is a long term benefit as opposed to a pension plan – so IAS 17 says that, in the case of long term benefits (usually long term sickness plans) actuarial differences should be in P&L – it’s a prize winner point

    Re approaching the numbers please refer to my approach in my recorded debrief lecture on this exam.

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  • The topic ‘Handfood, employee benefit sd2020’ is closed to new replies.

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