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TERP

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › TERP

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • April 17, 2021 at 3:03 pm #618032
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello John

    PG Co has a paid-up ordinary share capital of $4,500,000 represented by 6 million shares of 75c each. It hasn o loan capital. Earnings after tax in the most recent year were $3,600,000. The P/E ratio of the company is 15.
    The company is planning to make a large new investment which will cost $10,500,000, and is considering raising the necessary finance through a rights issue at 800c.
    Required
    Calculate the theoretical ex-rights price, and state what factors in practice might invalidate your
    calculation.

    In order to raise $10,500,000 at a price of 800 cents, the company will need to issue an additional 1,312,500 ($10,500,000/$8.00) shares.
    Following the investment, the total number of shares in issue will be 7,312,500 (6,000,000 +
    1,312,500). At this point, the total value of the company will be:
    (6m x $9) + $10,500,000 = $64,500,000
    The theoretical ex-rights price will therefore be $64.5m/7.3125m = $8.82.

    1. My issue is with the “At this point, the total value of the company will be: (6m x $9) + $10,500,000 = $64,500,000”
    – Normally the $9 is the EPS and I want to know why this figure has being used to calculate the value of the existing share.

    Thanks

    April 17, 2021 at 4:47 pm #618038
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54660
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    $9 is certainly not the EPS and I do not know why you are saying this.

    The EPS is 3,600,00 / 6,00,000 = $0.60.

    The PE ratio is 15, and therefore the current MV of the shares is 15 x $0.60 = $9 per share.

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