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Price to Book ratio

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Price to Book ratio

  • This topic has 6 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 8, 2021 at 10:25 am #609647
    googlytwist
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Firm has EPS 11.04 in 2019 and DPS 6. Growth in earning and dividend expected to be 6% in long term. The ROE is expected 14%.

    The beta is 0.8, the RFR is 6% and market premium is 4%.

    February 8, 2021 at 12:54 pm #609662
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Is this supposed to be a question? Because if it is then I have no idea what you are wanting!!

    February 15, 2021 at 11:38 am #610482
    googlytwist
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    It’s a question, for Price to Book value?
    Sorry! Missed to write it.
    I tried but couldn’t solve it.

    February 15, 2021 at 11:40 am #610483
    googlytwist
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    The provided answers are
    1) 5.91
    2) 0.50
    3) 2.38
    4) 0.83

    February 15, 2021 at 3:16 pm #610513
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am puzzled where you found this question, because price to book value is a US term which is not asked in Paper FM (if it ever was then it would be defined for you in the question).
    I assume that you are using a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA Approved Publishers. If this question is in the BPP Revision Kit then please tell me the number of the question because I am very surprised that they should have included it.
    Also, I am surprised that whatever book you are using that it does not provide the answer and workings 🙂

    Using CAPM, the shareholders required rate of return = 6 + (0.8 x 4) = 9.2%

    Therefore, using the dividend valuation formula, the MV = (6 x 1.06) / (0.092 – 0.06) = 198.75

    The nominal value of the shares is (11.04 x 1.06) / 0.14 = 83.59

    So the MV / nominal value = 198.75 / 83.59 = 2.38

    February 15, 2021 at 3:53 pm #610530
    Jiya024
    Member
    • Topics: 168
    • Replies: 56
    • ☆☆☆

    “The nominal value of the shares is (11.04 x 1.06) / 0.14 = 83.59”

    Sir am curious to know which is this formula that you used to find nominal value per share?

    February 15, 2021 at 4:02 pm #610534
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I divided next years earnings by the return on equity – it is a ‘formula’ from Paper FA 🙂

    However, again, this is not something that is asked for in ACCA exams.

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