Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › 6. foreign investment appraisal . Example 4
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by
John Moffat.
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- December 25, 2020 at 8:04 am #600837
because tax allowable depreciation is at the rate of 20% p.a.straight line and An amount equal to the amount of the tax allowable depreciation is required each year for the maintenance of non-current assets, I think it is better to take place into the account and hence the solution will change, because we should reduce TAD and Maintenance cost together as an allowable tax cost to calculate the taxable profit and for eliminate TAD effect must add back TAD to find out the Cashflow for every year
year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Revenue
Operating Cost
royallity
TAD 1000 1000 1000 1000 1000
maintenance 1000 1000 1000 1000 1000
taxable cashflow -615 -420 880 -125 -625
add back TAD 1000 1000 1000 1000 1000tax 20% in Oblivia -123 -84 176 -25 -125
tax 25% in Uk 108.70 145.83 416.67 200.00 100.00NPV= -1,462.53
December 25, 2020 at 1:04 pm #600851You have a valid point.
However as I explain in the free lecture working through this example, it is something that the current examiner regularly has in his questions and he does not subtract the cost of maintenance in arriving at the taxable profit.
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