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please help

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › please help

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by marlk.
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    Posts
  • December 5, 2020 at 12:57 am #597677
    marlk
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Hello I was doing this question and i don’t understand if you can please explain! thankyou!

    Yellow sells two types of squash balls: the type A and the type B. The standard contribution from these balls is $4 and $5 respectively and the standard profit per ball is $1.50 and $2.40 respectively. The budget was to sell 5 type A balls for every 3 type B balls.Actual sales were 240,000 balls which is 20,000 balls higher than budgeted. The actual sales included 200,000 of the type A balls. Yellow values its stock of balls at standard marginal cost.

    what is the adverse sales mix variance?

    So for this i got the answer right as:

    200k. 800k 150k 5/8 600k
    40k. 200k 90k 3/8 450k
    TOTAL 240k 1M 240K 1M 050

    Difference in contribution 50,000 Adv – correct

    Part b I don’t understand

    Yellow sells two types of squash ball, the type A and the type B. The standard contribution from these balls is $4 and $5 respectively and the standard profit per ball is $1.50 and $2.40 respectively. The budget was to sell 5 type A balls for every 3 type B balls.Actual sales were 240,000 balls which is 20,000 balls higher than budgeted. The actual sales included 200,000 of the type A balls. Yellow values its stock of balls at standard marginal cost.

    work out value of F sales Quantity Variance

    So for this i got the answer as:

    200k. 5/8 600k. 200k std 4 800k
    40k. 3/8 450k 20k 5 100k
    TOTAL 240k 1M 050 220k 900k

    so diff =150k

    but the answer in text book=

    Total actual sales 240,000
    Total budget sales 220,000
    Difference 20,000
    Average standard contribution $4.375 ((5 × 4) + (3 × 5))/8 = 4.375
    Favourable variance is $87,500

    I don’t understand where I am going wrong it may be a silly mistake but if you could help please. thanks so much! I don’t mainly understand why an avg std cont was used is it because the exact original budgeted mix is unknown?

    December 5, 2020 at 8:09 am #597702
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t understand your calculations because of the way they are set out.

    The actual sales at standard mix are A: 5/8 x 240,000 = 150,000 and B: 3/8 x 240,000 = 90,000
    At standard contribution this gives a total of (150,000 x $4) + (90,000 x $5) = $1,050,000

    The budget sales are A: 5/8 x 220,000 = 137,500, B: 3/8 x 220,000 = 82,500
    At standard contribution this gives a total of (137,500 x $4) + (82,500 x $5) = $962,500

    Therefore the variance is 1,050,000 – 962,500 = $87,500 (F)

    December 5, 2020 at 6:29 pm #597780
    marlk
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    sorry about that I realised after I posted it, was all over the place and not formatted.
    I understand the answer! the budgeted the amounts are usually given so i just assumed it was 220k split as 200 and 20k but you have to used the budgeted weighings as given 3/8 and 5/8 to split it as 137,500 and 82,500!

    thank you so much 🙂

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