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- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
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- October 20, 2020 at 5:00 pm #590826
Following is the question:
Ingham’s plc capital structure is as follows:
50c ordinary shares = $12m
8% $1 preference shares = $6m
12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $8mThe loan notes are redeemable at nominal value at 20X6. The current market prices of the company’s securities are as follows:
50c ordinary shares = 250c
8% $1 preference shares = 92c
12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $100The company is paying corporation tax at rate of 30%. The cost of company’s ordinary equity capital has been estimated at 18% pa.
What is the company’s weighted average cost of capital for capital investment appraisal purposes?
(End of Question)
Now I get it that the formula to solve this question is
(Ve/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Ke +(Vp/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Kp + (Vd/Ve+Vd+Vp) x Kd(1-T)
But still this formula is not giving me the right answer. I don’t know whether I’m putting the formula wrong or values.
Can anyone tell me its solution with clear workings so that I can understand the answer to this question.I will be very thankful to the person who solves this for me. It’s correct answer is 16.29%
Awaiting for response.
Thanks.
October 21, 2020 at 8:13 am #590928The cost of equity = 18%, and the market value = 60M
The cost of preference shares is 8.70% , and the market value = 5.52M
The cost of debt is 8.75%, and the market value is 8MIf you put those figures in your formula you will get the answer of 16.29%.
I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
October 22, 2020 at 7:49 am #591060Hello.
So nice of you to respond to my query.
I’m getting all my figures correctly except the market value of preference shares. Can you show me its working?
And yes surely I will watch your lectures to strengthen my concepts.
Thanks!
October 22, 2020 at 7:58 am #591064I did some workings on my own and got the figure of 5.52m by multiplying 6 x (100%-8%) = 5.52m
But if we multiply 6 with market value of securities I.e 92c then the answer is 5.52m too.Which one is the correct method?
October 22, 2020 at 8:43 am #591075The nominal value is $6M and since the nominal value is $1 per share, there are 6M shares.
The market value per share is $0.92, and therefore the total market value is 6M x 0.92 = $5.52M.
Do watch the lectures – questions in the exam are going to be more complicated than this basic question 🙂
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