Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › WACC Confusion.
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by  John Moffat. John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- October 20, 2020 at 5:00 pm #590826Following is the question: Ingham’s plc capital structure is as follows: 
 50c ordinary shares = $12m
 8% $1 preference shares = $6m
 12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $8mThe loan notes are redeemable at nominal value at 20X6. The current market prices of the company’s securities are as follows: 50c ordinary shares = 250c 
 8% $1 preference shares = 92c
 12.5% loan notes 20X6 = $100The company is paying corporation tax at rate of 30%. The cost of company’s ordinary equity capital has been estimated at 18% pa. What is the company’s weighted average cost of capital for capital investment appraisal purposes? (End of Question) Now I get it that the formula to solve this question is (Ve/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Ke +(Vp/Ve +Vd +Vp) x Kp + (Vd/Ve+Vd+Vp) x Kd(1-T) But still this formula is not giving me the right answer. I don’t know whether I’m putting the formula wrong or values. 
 Can anyone tell me its solution with clear workings so that I can understand the answer to this question.I will be very thankful to the person who solves this for me. It’s correct answer is 16.29% Awaiting for response. Thanks. October 21, 2020 at 8:13 am #590928The cost of equity = 18%, and the market value = 60M 
 The cost of preference shares is 8.70% , and the market value = 5.52M
 The cost of debt is 8.75%, and the market value is 8MIf you put those figures in your formula you will get the answer of 16.29%. I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well. October 22, 2020 at 7:49 am #591060Hello. So nice of you to respond to my query. I’m getting all my figures correctly except the market value of preference shares. Can you show me its working? And yes surely I will watch your lectures to strengthen my concepts. Thanks! October 22, 2020 at 7:58 am #591064I did some workings on my own and got the figure of 5.52m by multiplying 6 x (100%-8%) = 5.52m 
 But if we multiply 6 with market value of securities I.e 92c then the answer is 5.52m too.Which one is the correct method? October 22, 2020 at 8:43 am #591075The nominal value is $6M and since the nominal value is $1 per share, there are 6M shares. The market value per share is $0.92, and therefore the total market value is 6M x 0.92 = $5.52M. Do watch the lectures – questions in the exam are going to be more complicated than this basic question 🙂 
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.


