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  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 24, 2020 at 3:28 pm #574620
    chandni24
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    hi sir i have watched the lecture relating to this topic but i don’t get how to do copper co A) i

    June 24, 2020 at 4:50 pm #574628
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54665
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What topic is it?

    June 25, 2020 at 12:57 pm #574665
    chandni24
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    investment appraisal

    June 25, 2020 at 3:12 pm #574678
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54665
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The actual discounting involved is easy. Most of the work involved using techniques from previous exams (Papers FA and PM – were F2 and F5)).

    There are 9 possible things that can happen:

    1M in the first year and then 2M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.3 = 0.03 or
    1M in the first year and then 3M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.6 = 0.06 or
    1M in the first year and then 5M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.1 = 0.01 or
    2M in the first year and then 2M in the second year, with a probability of 0.5 x 0.3 = 0.15 or
    2M in the first year and then 3M in the second year, with a probability of 0.5 x 0.6 = 0.3

    and so on.

    Calculate the PV of each of the nine alternatives and then the rest should follow sensibly 🙂

    July 27, 2021 at 3:01 am #629523
    Nikitagarwal
    Participant
    • Topics: 154
    • Replies: 147
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir, I dont understand how did they calculated 1,013 , 216 , 1,378 etc – NPV

    July 27, 2021 at 9:00 am #629551
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54665
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The NPV is the PV of the inflows less the initial investment.

    So, for the first line in the table, 2,487 – 3,500 = (1,013)

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