Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › Depreciation
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
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- June 19, 2020 at 4:30 pm #574278
(BPP)
Q)A car was purchased by a newsagent business in May 20X0 for:Cost 10,000
Road tax 150
Total 10,150
The business adopts a date of 31 December as its year end.
The car was traded in for a replacement vehicle in August 20X3 at an agreed value of $5,000.
It has been depreciated at 25% per annum on the reducing balance method, charging a full year’s
depreciation in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale.
What was the profit or loss on disposal of the vehicle during the year ended December 20X3?
$_______ profit. (2 marks)ANS:
$781 profit$
Cost 10,000
20X0 Depreciation (25% reducing balance) 2,500
7,500
20X1 Depreciation 1,875
5,625
20X2 Depreciation 1,406
4,219
20X3 Part exchange 5,000
Profit 781
Note. The road tax is an expense. It does not form part of the cost of the car.My doubt here is that,
1)in the year 20X0 the asset should be depreciated for 8/12 months only but its depreciated for the full year. Is it because its mentioned in the question to charge a full year’s
depreciation in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale?
2) If the depreciation should be charged only in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale, why is it depreciated for all the years until 20X3?Thank You in advance
June 20, 2020 at 9:43 am #5743201. Yes – the question says to charge a full years depreciation in the year of purchase. This is very common both in the exam and in real life as I explain in my free lectures on depreciation.
2. The question does not say to only charge depreciation in the year of purchase. We always charge depreciation in every year!!!!!
I do suggest that you watch my lectures. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
June 20, 2020 at 1:43 pm #574333Okay sir understood.
If the depreciation is to be charged every year then, then what is this statement ” charging a full year’s
depreciation in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale” trying to indicate? Cause this is a very common statement in most of the questions.
Yes sir I have watched all of your lectures. Its just that i watched it long ago and have forgotten these important concepts.
Thank You for your kind help Sir.June 20, 2020 at 5:53 pm #574356A full years charge in the year of purchases means calculate depreciation for a whole year even if the asset was only purchased part way through the year (as opposed to counting how many months it has been owned).
I do suggest that you watch the lectures again.
June 28, 2020 at 10:22 am #574849Yes Sir you are right. I will watch them again.
Thank You sir 🙂June 28, 2020 at 10:30 am #574853You are welcome 🙂
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